Of course someone can enforce an amendment. If someone deprives you of your rights, that is grounds for litigation. The Civil Rights Act (talking about Title 2 since that's what governs places of public accommodation) was justified in court based on the commerce clause, not the 14th amendment, see Heart of Atlanta Motel v United States. The equal protection clause doesn't "require" anything of the sort. What it does is extends US Constitutional protections down to states and mandates that the laws of the states be applied similarly to people in similar situations. It has nothing to do with ensuring equal treatment of individuals.
The private company can't refuse black customers because of Title 2 of the CRA, which again is justified based on the commerce clause.
I'm still looking for whatever regulation that prohibits political discrimination. You've decided against producing such a regulation. It doesn't exist. If it were, it'd be easy to find as that would be a massive deal.
If you started posting on twitter, you signed a TOS. End of story.
Nonsense.
No one can enforce an amendment.
Amendments are only for federal appeals courts, and nothing else.
When there is grounds for litigation, that mean you sue someone, which is a civil court, and that is local, so has no recourse to federal documents like the Bill of Rights, constitution, etc. You can't bring up federal documents until you have appealed to federal courts.
The commerce clause can not possible be used as the basis for the civil rights act because all the commerce clause does is prevent restrictions on interstate transportation, and civil rights is about violations of rights within the same state.
It is true the SCOTUS often uses the commerce clause, but that is almost never legal.
Almost ever time the commerce clause if referenced, it is incredibly stupid and illegal.
But the SCOTUS does it all the time.
Read this link on how badly the commerce clause is abused.
Over the course of the last decades, the commerce clause has been used as a primary source for the regulatory expansion of the national government. This reading of the clause, granting virtually unlimited regulatory power over the economy to the federal government, came out of a series of...
www.heritage.org
Again, the commerce clause actually authorizes almost nothing except things like road or excise taxes on through traffic.
And it is clear you do not understand what "equal protection" means.
In 1870, could a store deny service to a white person. Obviously no. So then could a store deny service to a Black person? If you want to enforce Equal Protection, then obviously no. So then Equal Protection requires local government to enact laws to ensure equal protection to everyone. If not for the 14th amendment, then the 1967 Civil Rights Act would not have been legal. The federal government would not have been authorized to defend individual rights.
And obviously you are blind, because the internet is federal.
If is federally created and owned, as well as regulated by the FCC and FTC.
So how could it then possibly allow 1st amendment violations?
The actual federal legislation that enables the actual FCC regulations are irrelevant.
Since it is the 1st amendment that establishes the principle, that is the source.
That is the general abstraction.
We need not go into further detail.
And again, I have been posting on Twitter for years, but NEVER read or signed any Terms of Service agreement.