I don't give a damn how you explain it, moron. If two separate polls are conducted and they each have a 3% margin of error, the margin of error in the combined polls is still 3%.
Why would it make much of a difference?
Since the math is the same, explain this difference to me.
Instead of polls, if one is trying to estimate the average height of Americans, and two surveys are each conducted of an unbiased cross-section of 1,000 individuals, and no individual is in both surveys, how is that meaningfully different than one study with a sample size of 2,000 individuals?
BluePhantom
Statistikhengst
And even IF Clinton does lead by 4% or whatever, that's not "trouncing Trump" by any stretch of the imagination.
Possibly. But I said Clinton was leading, not trouncing.
And oh by the way, you should avoid using the word "cognitive" in any conversation, moron.
Your cognitive biases are obvious. Your ideological biases cause you to make assertions about others with whom you disagree.