There is No Future Battle of Armageddon:

The Jews had better hope for the battle. It brings Christ back to Jerusalem to prevent the complete slaughter of the Jews.
That's why I'll never jump on the I hate Jews bandwagon. They are my brother's and sisters

neither of you will be alive for the triumph of good - amageddon.

or you will bring to justice the crucifiers you presently represent and bring about the true conclusion prescribed by the heavens for their judgment set in the beginning by the request of a&e for their own self determination - and rewrite the desert bibles.
 
Revelation tells us that this generation won't taste death until it happens.
That is from Matthew 24:34 "Truly I say to you, this generation will not pass away until all these things take place.", said after Jesus describes everything that will occur after his death and until his return. The destruction of the temple, the diaspora, unspeakable suffering, persecution, and the return of the exiles which has taken thousands of years. "This generation" that will live to see it all fulfilled is the generation of error, the generation of darkness, that persists to this day and includes all of Christianity, Islam, and Judaism, that interprets and enforces the Divine commandments literally not to mention every nation that bases their laws on that perversity.

The literal interpretation of the Law is exactly what Jesus died trying to teach people is wrong.

And look! This generation has not yet passed away......even though its in its final death throes.
 
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It says where our Lord was crucified... He wasn't crucified in Rome.
Revelation 11: 8 "And their dead bodies will lie in the street of the great city which spiritually is called Sodom and Egypt, where also [c]our Lord was crucified. " (KJV)

This is a verse that can easily be misunderstood due to translation. The word "Lord" directly translates to the modern word "Master". "Lord" was used in English to denote "Master" throughout history and used up to (almost present day). Modern day translations state "Their Lord" instead of "Our Lord". This alludes that the sentence is stating, "Where their "Master" (Leader) was crucified". Who was the leader of the apostles when John was imprisoned in Patmos? Peter. Peter was crucified in Rome.

LORD (all capitals) refers to God (or an Angel of God) throughout the Bible. When the standard word "Lord" (Not capitalized) is used, it is used to denote the word "Master". Jesus was often referred to as "Lord" "Teacher" and "Rabbi" throughout the New Testament but when he was referred to as "Lord" it means "Master". When you see Jesus referred to as "The Son of Man", it is a direct reference to him being referred to as an anointed prophet of God.

Jesus was later crucified because he was accused of blasphemy. Calling anyone at the time "The Son of Man" or the "Son of God" could have been considered blasphemy. That's the reason Jesus was usually referred to as "Lord" (Lower case, aka "Master") throughout the Gospels. Once he established himself as "The Son of Man" or "The Son of God" among his followers, he was (almost immediately) put to death.

The passion and resurrection is what (eventually) established/solidified Jesus' divinity and oneness with God in Christianity (and among his followers at the time).
 
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Revelation 11: 8 "And their dead bodies will lie in the street of the great city which spiritually is called Sodom and Egypt, where also [c]our Lord was crucified. " (KJV)

This is a verse that can easily be misunderstood due to translation. The word "Lord" directly translates to the modern word "Master". "Lord" was used in English to denote "Master" throughout history and used up to (almost present day). Modern day translations state "Their Lord" instead of "Our Lord". This alludes that the sentence is stating, "Where their "Master" (Leader) was crucified". Who was the leader of the apostles when John was imprisoned in Patmos? Peter. Peter was crucified in Rome.

LORD (all capitals) refers to God (or an Angel of God) throughout the Bible. When the standard word "Lord" (Not capitalized) is used, it is used to denote the word "Master". Jesus was often referred to as "Lord" "Teacher" and "Rabbi" throughout the New Testament but when he was referred to as "Lord" it means "Master". When you see Jesus referred to as "The Son of Man", it is a direct reference to him being referred to as an anointed prophet of God.

Jesus was later crucified because he was accused of blasphemy. Calling anyone at the time "The Son of Man" or the "Son of God" could have been considered blasphemy. That's the reason Jesus was usually referred to as "Lord" (Lower case, aka "Master") throughout the Gospels. Once he established himself as "The Son of Man" or "The Son of God" among his followers, he was (almost immediately) put to death.

The passion and resurrection is what established/solidified Jesus' divinity and oneness with God in Christianity (and among his followers at the time).

Peter was never referred to as our Lord.
 
That is from Matthew 24:34 "Truly I say to you, this generation will not pass away until all these things take place.", said after Jesus describes everything that will occur after his death and until his return. The destruction of the temple, the diaspora, unspeakable suffering, persecution, and the return of the exiles which has taken thousands of years. "This generation" that will live to see it all fulfilled is the generation of error, the generation of darkness, that persists to this day and includes all of Christianity, Islam, and Judaism, that interprets and enforces the Divine commandments literally not to mention every nation that bases their laws on that perversity.

The literal interpretation of the Law is exactly what Jesus died trying to teach people is wrong.

And look! This generation has not yet passed away......even though its in its final death throes.


norwegen

You think the letter was written to people thousands of years in the future?
 
The passion and resurrection is what (eventually) established/solidified Jesus' divinity and oneness with God in Christianity (and among his followers at the time).

everything preceding the highlite is a fallacy per the time of the event - liberation theology, self determination were their earthly goals.

the 1st century, there was never a claim of divinity during that time by anyone - but the jews - what is referred to is manufactured in the 4th century - christian bible.
 
everything preceding the highlite is a fallacy per the time of the event - liberation theology, self determination were their earthly goals.

the 1st century, there was never a claim of divinity during that time by anyone - but the jews - what is referred to is manufactured in the 4th century - christian bible.

The Gospels are dated to the 1st century. (According to most historians and our current dating technology). Are you stating that they are not?
 
When you see Jesus referred to as "The Son of Man", it is a direct reference to him being referred to as an anointed prophet of God.

"Son of God", a relational metaphor, indicates a closeness to and intimatcy with God above that of any other prophet called "servant of God". "A servant doesn't know what his Master is about."
 
"Son of God", a relational metaphor, indicates a closeness to and intimatcy with God above that of any other prophet called "servant of God". "A servant doesn't know what his Master is about."
"Son of Man" is taken from the book of Ezekiel, in the Old Testament.

"Son (or sons) of God" is taken from the book of Genesis, in the Old Testament.

But yes, I tend to agree - during Jesus' time, it would have meant an intimacy/closeness with God.
 
The Gospels are dated to the 1st century. (According to most historians and our current dating technology). Are you stating that they are not?

where are they ...

where is the archive saved in the 4th century w/ the documents used to write their christian bible or the appendixes to direct to where their writings originated w/ the documents available as well as any gospels so referred to as available for verification.

the same for the other two ... than the true spirituality that did exist in the 1st century that was crucified along with those that gave their lives for its awakening.
 
It's a typical translation error gone array with the blind following the blind.
Theslonians is plagiarizing Daniel whereby son of man comes with or out of the "clouds" meaning gathering of temple priests. Moshiach comes out of the lineage of the Kohanim and with the gathering of Kohanim during the procession to the temple to come. People are therefore going "up to Mt. Zion" to this enraptured event and gathering (clouds) for the procession of the Moshiach to his temple (Mikdash) in his name. That's why Theslonians says the call to the Temple is from the shout of the top messenger (head of hosts) Michael who's name is in the temple and who Daniel said was the redeemer to come who gave him his visions to come.
-Dan 12:1-4
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whereby son of man comes with or out of the "clouds" meaning gathering of temple priests.
No. Clouds is a metaphor meaning hidden. Jesus was obscured by a cloud after his death.

"The Lord has said that he would dwell in a dark cloud." Psalm 18:11 He made darkness his covering, his canopy around him - the dark rain clouds of the sky. Psalm 97:2 Clouds and thick darkness surround him..."

Clouds in this context have nothing whatever to do with temple priests. Derp.

Coming out of the clouds means the son of man will be revealed, even if he died a long time ago.
 
No. Clouds is a metaphor meaning hidden. Jesus was obscured by a cloud after his death.

"The Lord has said that he would dwell in a dark cloud." Psalm 18:11 He made darkness his covering, his canopy around him - the dark rain clouds of the sky. Psalm 97:2 Clouds and thick darkness surround him..."

Clouds in this context have nothing whatever to do with temple priests. Derp.

Coming out of the clouds means the son of man will be revealed, even if he died a long time ago.
Have you read the commentary of the Bible from like era writtings, like the Dead Sea Scrolls?
If not then you don't know it specifically talks us what cloud means and you'd know darkness (when referring to spirituality) meant lies ignorance and folly. If Dan 12:1-5 says Michael rises up at the time of trouble never seen before, then Dan's gathering is at the time of great ignorance and lies and folly (great darkness), what you see today qualifies as such description.
Now go to the *TANAKH VERSION of what you are reading then also read 1Kings where clouds refers to the gathering of host.

Tanakh source no mention of clouds in 18:11
10And He bent the heavens, and He came down, and thick darkness was under His feet.
11And He rode on a cherub and did fly; He swooped on the wings of the wind.
12He made darkness His hiding-place about Him as His booth; the darkness of waters, thick clouds of the skies.

Here imagery is describing actual clouds not spiritual clouds or could be using symbolism to describe spiritual likeness -emulations- reflections
Waters refers sometimes to spirituality and counters your sky only translation, Perhaps the word sky in this specific notation should be further examined for possible other translation or symbolism. None of which changes the Daniel description of the procession to the Mikdash which is missinterpreted by Roman's plagiarizing a story and words they didn't understand.
 
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Have you read the commentary of the Bible from like era writtings, like the Dead Sea Scrolls?
Yes. I also saw in them that there is hidden teaching in the Law that was kept from Jewish laity.

Would you like to see where that is clearly spelled out in the Dead Sea scrolls in every language?

And I saw they were expecting God to fart out fiery angels from the sky to help defeat the Kittim.

Didn't happen. Go figure.

Do you want to know what was hidden then and lost to time when everyone who held the secrets to the kingdom of God were killed remaining hidden to this day from even magnificent you?
 
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