I'd be curious to hear what a linguistic expert had to say about the second amendment. It doesn't seem to be a correct sentence:
"A well regulated Militia, being necessary to the security of a free State, the right of the people to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed."
The pro-gun people seem to interpret it as:
"A well regulated Militia, being necessary to the security of a free State, shall not be infringed."
"The right of the people to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed."
Two separate statements.
The single statement:
"A well regulated Militia, being necessary to the security of a free State, the right of the people to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed."
Seems to mean that 'a well regulated militia' is what satisfies the condition of 'the right of the people to keep and bear Arms', not individual gun ownership.
There has to be some reason why these two were combined into a single sentence - some relation. It's almost as though something got left out in the middle.
But I'm not a linguistic expert....