And if you used the labor force participation rate from December 1954, the UE rate now would be -2.1%. Yes, that's a negative sign. Does your operation really make sense if it allows a negative UE rate?
There is always a natural rate of unemployment which will prevent the number from dropping too low. Technically you could have zero unemployment but you would never have a negative percentage.
Exactly my point. If a methodology of calculating an alternate unemployment can result in a negative number, then there's something wrong with the methodology.
If the labor force participation rate dropped from 62.6% to 58.1% next month, the unemployment rate would drop to near zero, but it would NOT be a negative number. But if the labor force participation rate sky rocketed to 70%, you would have dramatic rise in unemployment as the number of potential employees would vastly exceed the number of jobs available.
Please show your math. I'm curious what calculations you're doing. By my math...the population has been increasing at a rate of around .09% So assume a population of 250,885,000...if the Labor Force is 58.1%, what's the Unemployment rate?
The UE rate could go up or down or stay the same under your scenario depending on how you define the decline.
Technically, if the labor force shrinks enough while the demand for employees does not change, everyone participating in the labor force gets a job meaning there is no unemployment. Participating employees who can't find jobs raises the unemployment level. But if the number of participating employees drops enough relative to the number of job openings, you could have a situation where the unemployment rate is near zero. It will never actually be zero because there are always people who are between jobs.
Yes, that's Econ 101. My point is that taking the LFPR and saying what the UE rate would be is a bullshit operation that requires unwarranted assumptions.
The unemployment rate is a fraction of those participating in the labor force. When the labor force expands, but economic conditions remain the same, unemployment rises. When the labor force participation rate drops but the economic conditions remain the same, unemployment falls. Unemployment can fall to zero if the labor force participation rate drops enough. So start with these figures:
I find it odd that you seem to be talking like changes in employment or unemployment are an effect of a changing participation rate. It's not that "the labor force drops and unemploymnt falls" but what really happens is that unemployment falls and if that results in an overall drop in the labor force, then the participation rate will go down. The labor force is just employed plus unemployed.
Potential labor force: 250,000,000
What the rest of us call the adult civilian non-institutional population, or just "the population."
Participation rate: 60% (150,000,000) 142,500,000 jobs
Unemployment rate: 5% (7,500,000 unemployed) (142,500,000 with jobs)
Labor Force Participation rate goes up to 80% without change in jobs available
Participation rate: 80% (200,000,000) 142,500,000 jobs.
Unemployment rate: 28.75% (57,500,000 unemployed) (142,500,000 with jobs)
"Jobs available?" what does that mean?
So in this scenario...the population stays static, the number of people employed stays static, and 50 million people, who had not been trying to work and most of whom had said they didn't want a job suddenly start looking for work and no one gets a job. That's a little odd.
And I'm not sure of the point. The labor force participation rate goes up is the percent change in the labor force goes up by more than that of the population. It doesn't matter if employment goes up or down or unemployment goes up or down. They can both go up. They can't both go down unless the population drops.
Labor Force Participation rate declines to 40% without change in jobs available
Participation rate 40% (100,000,000) 142,500,000 jobs
Unemployment rate: 0 (zero workers unemployed) 100,000,000 with jobs, 42,500,000 jobs unfilled.
ummm if employed = 100,000 and unemployed = 0, then the Labor force = 100,000 because it's defined as employed plus unemployed. I have no idea what you think "jobs unfilled" means or how it could be part of the labor force. There's just no such thing as "jobs unfilled" The closest to that would be "jobs openings" and those are not used in any employment or unemployment statistics.
For the drop in LFPR...that occurs when the percent change in the labor force does not go up by as much as the population. employed can go up or down and unemployed can go up or down, or they could both go down or both go up as long as the population goes up by more.
So we CANNOT in any way tell by looking at the participation rate if the unemployment rate has gone up or down.