Toddsterpatriot
Diamond Member
These cities, towns, and villages predate the Ottoman Empire.
Like Jerusalem?
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These cities, towns, and villages predate the Ottoman Empire.
The Ottoman Empire did what empires always do. They claim that everybody's land is theirs. They lost that claim when they lost the war. The Treaty of Lausanne returned the land to the people.Like Jerusalem?
What land? What people?The Ottoman Empire did what empires always do. They claim that everybody's land is theirs. They lost that claim when they lost the war. The Treaty of Lausanne returned the land to the people.
Write it 1000 times.The Ottoman Empire did what empires always do. They claim that everybody's land is theirs. They lost that claim when they lost the war. The Treaty of Lausanne returned the land to the people.
The Ottoman Empire did what empires always do. They claim that everybody's land is theirs.
The Treaty of Lausanne did not create anything. The new states were created by the Allied Powers. The Treaty of Lausanne merely released the territories to their respective new states.What land? What people?
As usual, you're circling back to your "Treaty of Lausanne invented the country of Pal'istan" conspiracy theory.
Sure, everything.Even Jewish land?
Who did the Arabs expel from their land?Which did not return the land to the Arabs who, like the Ottoman Turks, had also invaded the land and taken it from its original people...
Sure, everything.
It looks like you have a bitch with the Greeks not the Palestinians.who took it after the Romans, who took after the Greek from the indigenous people, the Jews who created a Nation on the land starting 3000 years ago.
All of the Jews who became Palestinian citizens in 1925 should have gotten their land back.So now the Jewish land is Jewish again.
All of the Jews who became Palestinian citizens in 1925 should have gotten their land back.
Since land deeds did not exist in the Ottoman Empire until the middle of the 19th century, it is hard to tell.Which Jews in Israel didn't get their land back?
Since land deeds did not exist in the Ottoman Empire until the middle of the 19th century, it is hard to tell.
Do they? Or do they merely claim it is theirs like all of the other empires?They own it now, so what's the problem?
Why would you assume that it is hard to know since land deeds did exist in the Ottoman Empire after 1856 when they started selling land?Since land deeds did not exist in the Ottoman Empire until the middle of the 19th century, it is hard to tell.
Do they? Or do they merely claim it is theirs like all of the other empires?
It is no secret that the Ottoman Empire was screwing its people.Why would you assume that it is hard to know since land deeds did exist in the Ottoman Empire after 1856 when they started selling land?
Such records do exist but you do like to live in the world where all Arabs 'Owned" land and it was all "stolen" from them by the Jews.
A few rich Arabs bought land after 1856. Most were poor and could not afford one Dunham to their name.
It was all recorded by the Ottomans. The British kept those records. They are still available to this day.
Land Ownership in Palestine, 1880–1948 | survival
lessons.myjli.com
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Jewish land purchase in Palestine - Wikipedia
en.wikipedia.org
Deflection.Like the Pallies claim it?
Deflection.