from Article I section 8 of the US Constitution:
"The Congress shall have Power To lay and collect Taxes, Duties, Imposts and Excises, to pay the Debts and provide for the common Defence and General Welfare of the United States; but all Duties, Imposts and Excises shall be uniform throughout the United States"
I don't see any explicit limit placed on what CAN or CANNOT be considered providing for the general welfare of the United States. However, I've seen several people here lately argue that there is only ONE acceptable definition of 'general welfare' (conveniently their own) and it excludes anything that even slightly constitutes a redistribution of wealth.
I understand philosophical and ideological opposition to wealth redistribution. But I don't understand constitutional opposition.
How do you interpret the General Welfare clause?
That you ignore the deffinition of the "GENERAL welfare of the United States" doesn't mean the word GENERAL means anything other than what it does. Taking money from the public at large (That would be the GENERAL public for idiots) DETRACTS from the GENERAL welfare, giving it to a specific minority of individuals only adds to those individuals SPECIFIC welfare. The congress is NOT empowered to DETRACT from the GENERAL welfare to provide some people with SPECIFIC welfare. Considering this practice providing for the GENERAL welfare is purposefully ignoring the clear deffinition of the actual words and replacing them with the idea of the words you want to be there. If you call an apple an orange... it's not a ******* orange, you're just an idiot.
Thank you, the argument I've been making as as well. Things like National Parks, Interstate highways, military defense of the US and things like serve the general interest of the United States and whether you think we should or shouldn't spend on those things, they are reasonably Constitional at least. Clearly redistribution of money in all it's forms is not in the General Welfare of the United States. It's not that hard.
And you have to ignore the 10th amendment as well. Why did people who thought they'd created a limited government and write the 9th and 10th amendments then say government can do anything? It makes no sense.