Inclined to Liberty: The Futile Attempt to Suppress the Human Spirit
Chapters 13 and 14
The author cites a very interesting study,
Economic Freedom of the World 2005, by the
Fraser institute
The study reports that regardless of the degree of economic freedom, the index of which is based on the degree of personal choice, freedom of voluntary exchange, protection of person and property, the right to keep earnings and th e freedom to enter and compete in markets, among 128 countries 9comprising 93% of the world's population), the percentage share of income by quintiles from 1998-2002 remained about the same in each country.
Let's start by asking ourselves this: do reported incomes REALLY indicate incomes for every quintile?
I say they do not.
I say that those figures, become increasingly irrelevant to
actual incomes and wealth, the further up the income range one goes.
I suggest to you that, thanks to a very complex and classist bias in our taxation system,
most income of the wealthy and the vast majority of income of the very wealthy is actually never reported, or at best reported AFTER the wealthy retires.
And as tax system vary wildly, the Fraser report becomes essantially meaningless since it does not say it takes any those differences of taxation by nations into account.
Let me give one real life American example of deferring incomes that skew the numbers, shall I?
It is not at all uncommon to run into people who have large tax-deferred accounts. Multimillion-dollar IRAs are usually the result of rollovers from 401(k)s or other company retirement plans.
Some wealthy individuals have no need for these tax-deferred accounts, as they have other sources of retirement income. I was contacted by such an individual, whom I'll call Vincent, a few weeks ago through his accountant.
Vincent, who is in his 60s, has substantial wealth.
With $50 million "in the bank," and $2 million of annual income, he has little need for his $2.5 million IRA. After he retires, his $500,000 annual expenses will be covered by his investment portfolio.
Vincent knows that withdrawals from the IRA are subject to income taxes. And, that the IRA will be counted as an asset in his estate for estate tax purposes. As such, he will burden his two children who are his IRA beneficiaries (50:50) with the potential for double taxation.
Vincent's children will not receive a "step-up" in basis when they inherit the IRA. Plus, they will pay income taxes on any withdrawals they take from the IRA.
Let's assume that each child wanted to withdraw his share of the IRA to buy a house.
If the IRA were valued at $5 million at Vincent's death and each child withdrew his half share at the time, each child would need to report $2.5 million of taxable income on his IRS Form 1040. In contrast, if each child inherited $2.5 million in stocks held in a taxable brokerage account (not tax-deferred), there would be no taxable income or capital gain to report if the child wanted to sell the stock to free up cash to by a home.
In a taxable account situation, the taxes work like this: Assume that Vincent purchased the stocks at $5 a share and worth $10 a share at his death. Assume the kids sold the stocks at $10 a share. Because of the "step-up" in cost basis, the kids' cost basis is $10 not $5. (The $5 would be the cost basis but for the step-up.) When they sell their shares at $10, they have no taxable gain. (The $10 selling price minus $10 cost equals zero capital gain.)
We're talking about two different tax structures here: A tax on the gain on the sale of the stock (taxable account) and a tax on income created by a withdrawal (IRA). Not to confuse the issue, if Vincent owned the same stocks in the IRA, the children could sell them with no tax consequences if they did not make a withdrawal. It's the withdrawal that triggers the income tax liability.
Keep in mind that IRA beneficiaries cannot avoid some withdrawals - beneficiaries are required by law to take required minimum distributions after the death of an IRA owner.
So, for someone like Vincent, a large IRA may actually be a burden, not a benefit.
Vincent wants to withdraw the funds from the IRA now, pay taxes now, and invest the proceeds outside of the tax-deferred environment.
Given that tax scenario, there is a better solution.
Since Vincent is prepared to pay income taxes on a $2.5 million IRA withdrawal, it's a no-brainer to do one better.
Wait until 2010 and convert the IRA to a Roth IRA. Why 2010? That's the year in which anyone, no matter how much they make, can establish or convert to a Roth IRA. (Currently, there are income limits that prohibit higher earners from setting up or converting to a Roth IRA.)
By converting to a Roth IRA, the account becomes tax-free instead of tax-deferred.
Plus, after a waiting period, Roth IRA money can be withdrawn tax-free by the IRA owner, Vincent, and by his beneficiaries.
After the conversion and after the waiting period, no income taxes are due or payable by either Vincent or the children after they inherit the Roth IRA.
The Roth IRA is, however, still considered part of Vincent's estate for estate tax purposes. And, the beneficiaries (not the IRA owner) are required to take distributions after they inherit the Roth, but the distributions are tax-free.
source
Now imagine that some significant percentage of the the upper quintile can take advantage of sort of highly complex estate planning
that only the wealthy can take advantage of.
What does that really do to the posted income distributions by quintiles?
It WILDLY
underreports the incomes of that uppermost quintile, doesn't it?
And bear in mind the above is but one of thousands of such tax avoidance schemes that are avialble pretty much ONLY to the rather affluent in AMERICA.
The fact is that the whole incomes reporting game (at least regarding America) is about as accurate a picture of how bad it really is, as our CPI is a specious report of actual inflation, or our unemployment numbers are wilding underreporting the true nature of the employment picture in the USA
Countries with greater freedom had higher per capita incomes but irrespective of the average level of per capita income of a country, the percentage distrubution of income for ascending quintiles settled out at approximately 6%, 11%, 15%, 21% and 47%.
I find this an interesting finding, but again, I am highly dubious that findings are meaningful given that different government's which have extremely different tax laws.
Remember that those incomes are the reported incomes AFTER ALL THE TAX GAMING THAT ONLY THE AFFLUENT CAN REALLY DO GETS DONE.
These figures seem to indicate that income quintile tiers are a natural distribution much like a bell curve and remain largely unchanged in terms of percentage regardless of the attempts to equalize them.
A Bell curve? How can the numbers of wealth distribution broken down by quintilesof income earners be described as a bell curve when the outcomes of income distribution by quintile read:
6%, 11%, 15%, 21% and 47%
Perhaps I am missing the author's point? Where's the bell curve?
The caveat of these numbers is that they are but a mere snapshot of a population at any given time and it is easy to assume they are static. that is that the people in the lower quintile are a fixed group.
I do not assume they are static. I assume they are sticky.
This is not true however. We see that the lowest quintile of earners has the least number of people
Okay, this makes like ZERO sense.
The quintiles each represent 20% of all income earners. The lowest qunitile is 20% of incomes earners as is EVERY quintile that follows.
and also the youngest people as should be assumed. income mobility or the freedom to move up in the quintile tiers make income gaps even more meaningless.
Yes, there is economic mobility for most income earners, that is certainly true.
The real question is how much mobility and for how many?
We can assume all we want but can we find outcomes over lifetimes which give a the true picture of class mobility?
I see nothing here that gives us those numbers
Econ 309 Home Page (lecture 13 Economic Myths and reality)
The above lecture details that in the US only 5% of those in the lowest quintile in 1975 were still in the same quintile in 1991.
By 1991 59.3% of those people had mobilized to occupy the top 2 quintiles, while 35.6% mobilized to the second and third quintiles.
I'd would dearly
love to see those numbers and I would dearly love to see the methodology this author used to find them, too.
Let's just say that I seriously doubt if 6 out of ten people starting out with incomes in the lowest quintile ended up 16 years later in the
upper two quintiles.
take the natural quintile distribution tiers and the fact of income mobility into account and one can safely say the statement,
Interest words...what do they mean? They don't mean anything, but merely beg the question
"The rich are getting richer and the poor are getting poorer"
is utterly false.
Yes the numbers regarding the wealth of the rich v the wealth of the poor continue to show us that is true, even though even the IRS admits that when it comes to the top 1-2% even THEY don't have a real picture of actualy WEALTH (as opposed to reported incomes)
Any attempt to attenuate the higher quintlies incomes only results in a depression of income over all quintiles with the relative percentages remaining about the same.
Nothing in the above proves that to be true.
It might be, but nothing in the above remotely proves that, or for that matter even suggests it might be true.
The final statement is
pure conjecture.