Bootney Lee Farnsworth
Diamond Member
Did the states own any property?Can you elaborate on why you think thats wrong?WRONG.All the land mass it owned including the states that attempted to seceed and lost.Which was?All the land within its scope of ownership at that time.So, what was the property of the United States?No it applies to property which is right there n the definition. Once you become part of the US you are now US property regardless of if its a state or territory.That applies to territories, not States. Otherwise, there would be no need for this language:Section 3.My bad. It was in the constitution. I knew I had read it long ago.
Article IV Section 3
New states may be admitted by the Congress into this union; but no new states shall be formed or erected within the jurisdiction of any other state; nor any state be formed by the junction of two or more states, or parts of states, without the consent of the legislatures of the states concerned as well as of the Congress.
The Congress shall have power to dispose of and make all needful rules and regulations respecting the territory or other property belonging to the United States; and nothing in this Constitution shall be so construed as to prejudice any claims of the United States, or of any particular state.
Still not seeing it. Nothing in there forbids States from seceding.
"...or other property belonging to the United States; and nothing in this Constitution shall be so construed as to prejudice any claims of the United States, or of any particular state."
If you want to secede you have to get off US property.
"nothing in this Constitution shall be so construed as to prejudice any claims of the United States, or of any particular state."
"...or other property belonging to the United States;"
Congress...needful rules.....respecting the territory or other property belonging to the United States.