For the charge to stand there would have to be an exact and comparable example from which to judge any claims of " special treatment " for Israel. Is there another state that claims it's policy of ongoing illegal settlement/annexation of the territory of another people is based on their security needs ? Is it based on religious grounds ? Does it seek to deny a people the right to self determination and supplant them with people from all over the globe based on nothing but religious denomination ?
First, we would have to decided what would be comparable. I reject the qualifications listed above.
1. You make the prior assumption that settlement is illegal, yet this is what we are trying to determine.
2. You bring up annexation with no definition of what is being annexed and from whom.
3. You fail to define the "territory of another people" and lay out the legal claim to such.
4. You throw in "security needs" without explaining how that is relevant to the legal claims.
5. You label the conflict as a religious conflict.
6. You claim, not in evidence, that Israel denies a people a right to self determination and seeks to supplant them.
I agree that we should discuss the comparisons but offer a different set of criteria.
1. Who has legal title to the territory in question?
2. Is the "occupier" laying claim outside their own international borders?
3. Are the individuals moving into the territory voluntarily?
4. Is there an historical connection of the people with that territory?
5. Are there unresolved issues of self-determination for one or more peoples?
You mentioned Western Sahara but , although the situations are similar to a degree , there is a consistant rejection from the UN to recognize the Moroccan claims of sovereignty over WS with their view being similar to that of their view on Palestine with the call being that the people of WS should have the right to self determination.
Yes, I agree the UN does not recognize Moroccan claims to sovereignty in WS. In is an unsettled claim and the territory is disputed. I will look it up, but if memory recalls, it was not even called an occupation until very recently, though I may be mistaken about that. But, GCIV 49 has not been applied to that conflict and there is no international condemnation of illegal Moroccan settlements in WS. And as far as I know, no one is suggesting that Moroccan settlers be uprooted and returned to Morocco. They don't even call them settlers.
And yet, the actual movement of Moroccan citizens into WS is a much more egregious violation of GCIV 49, if you interpret it the way it is interpreted for Israel.
We could also comment that your view that the Arabs should not have the right to enter into negotiations with conditions but presumeably Israel should , as proof of your support for anti Arab bias/bigotry ?
Ah, no. Both sides should enter negotiations without pre-conditions. And it is disingenuous for you to presume to understand my position and then label your presumption as proof of my supposed bias.