Hi OohPah:
1. I don't mean LEGALLY what is the difference.
I mean in consequence, if you are going to have your property seized because you disagree religiously about the limits of federal govt, how is that "NOT PUNISHING" you? For your BELIEFS? That you either believe you have the right to decide your own health care coverage, with or without insurance, or you believe these mandates are outside federal jurisdiction and belong to the states or to the people.
OP let me put it this way:
The same way illegal aliens are considered by some to have committed a crime or violation, while others do not; why are we making CITIZENS who have NOT committed a violation of policy suddenly "punishable" for doing what they normally would do that is not a crime???
At any rate - you are mistaken. The law only prohibits CRIMINAL penalties for failure to pay the penalty. The IRS may still garnish your wages and seize your bank assets. These are not criminal penalties. You will not go to prison nor have a criminal record - but your property will be seized in order to pay for it.
How is seizing your property or threatening to any less like treating someone as a criminal???
Because no crime has been committed. Its a civil action. Are you seriously this retarded? You want to know the difference between having a criminal record and not? Next time you apply for a job or a loan put "felon" on the application and see what happens.
OPPD, given that the religious conditions on opt-out exemptions require someone to be a member of a religious group since 1999 where the members pay for each other's health care costs --
Can you please explain how this is NOT govt regulation or discrimination based on religion?
That if certain people qualify for exemption based on a narrow condition of religious nature, while other people who aren't of this faith category must either pay a fine or be subject to having property seized, etc.
You're confusing the individual mandate with the employer mandate. There is no religious exception for the individual mandate.
2. Thanks for responding to this as one of the key questions I had.
Did the bill get amended to remove the religious exemption or is it still in effect:
"According to the Culpepper, VA Star-Exponent,
in the midst of this sweeping new legislation is the “Religious Exemption,” Section 1501(b), which states: “The term ‘applicable individual’ … shall not include any individual for any month if such individual is a member of a health care sharing ministry for the month.”
The bill then defines a “health care sharing ministry” to be any 501(c)(3) organization that has existed since at least 1999 whose members “share a common set of ethical or religious beliefs and share medical expenses among members in accordance with those beliefs.”
If this is still in the bill, I argue that other people "independent of religious beliefs" should have the same freedom to choose alternative means of covering health care for themselves and others, especially since even this federally mandated program doesn't cover all people.
Thank you for honestly responding to questions I had re: 1 and 2.
If you can please help me reconcile this, I greatly appreciate your help to understand!
Note: My question in #1 is a revised version of my friend Tom Wayburn who used the prochoice arguments to defend drug legalization. In that case he was comparing the freedom to put drugs into his body vs. the freedom of a woman to abort a baby out of hers. In this case, I can see how either drug use or abortion would make people want to ban that as harmful. So if liberal advocates push NOT to punish either drug use or abortion as choices, then why punish the choice not to buy private insurance? That is even LESS harmful of a choice than drug use or abortion, so why jump on this and let the others go?