Your belief that government can set wages wherever it likes by fiat
does not exist. Next?
ROFL! Really? Says who? Certainly not any credible economists.
ALL credible economists, actually. Say's law is taken seriously only by Austrians, who are NOT credible economists.
It depends on infinite price elasticity, which is not a fact.
No it doesn't.
Sure it does. Say's law holds that when production happens, buying power equal to the market value of the goods produced comes into existence.
But this fails to take into account who is in possession of that market value. Demand equals the desire to buy plus the ability to buy; clearly, the owner of the goods produced has the ability to buy those goods (i.e., he or she is in possession of
exactly their market value), but does not have any desire to do so. Others who may have the desire, will buy the goods only if they also have the ability (that is, if they are in possession of equal value). Or, put more simply, the owner of the goods is not himself a market for them, and for anyone else to be a market for them that person must have the money to meet the price.
Now, this would present no problem, and Say's law would be more than a meaningless tautology, if the price for the goods was infinitely elastic. In that case, lack of funds in the hands of those who want to buy the goods would result in the price dropping until the lack was remedied, whereupon they would be sold. But the price is not infinitely elastic. There is a limit to how low it can go before the sale becomes unprofitable. And that is why Say's law is garbage.
The "general demand recession" is a fiction. No such thing has ever occurred.
All recessions have been general demand recessions, without a single exception. All have resulted from a lack of demand able to absorb the products produced.
What has occurred are recessions caused by mal investment
I'm not even going to respond to your contention that this "malinvestment" is the result of government interference, because it's not necessary. Your claim that recessions result from malinvestment
itself is untrue. Malinvestment does sometimes happen, but it never results in a recession; what it does result in is the failure of one product. For example, Ford's investment in the Edsel was a famous example of malinvestment. It caused Ford to lose money. But it did not cause a recession.
Malinvestment economy-wide simply cannot happen in a market-driven economy, which, even at maximum "government interference," the U.S. economy has always been. A recession occurs when there is not enough money being spent by consumers to absorb the products being produced. Usually it is triggered by a failure of some portion of the financial sector, resulting in a sharp decline of consumer credit. But that only causes a recession because it reduces consumers to spending only their incomes -- and then only when incomes are insufficient. If this were caused by "malinvestment," it would be a case of business producing too much of everything.
Now, business producing too much of everything, and consumers having inadequate buying power, are two different slants on the same thing, namely an imbalance between buying power and production. But to call that "malinvestment" implies that people ought to be poor. As long as there are people who WANT the goods being produced, the fact that they have insufficient money to buy them should not be interpreted as meaning the goods should not have been produced, but rather that the people who want them are underpaid (or the goods priced too high, which means the same thing in the end).