Only well regulated militia of the whole and entire People, are declared Necessary.
So, assuming "well-regulated" means "organized" (it does not) the non-well regulated militia of only PART of the people are not declared necessary, but nothing in the 2nd states that the right of the People can be infringed.
How does that change the FACT that the right to keep and bear arms pre-existed the United States and the Amendment unequivocally declares that the right of the people shall not be infringed?
You have never once connected the dots. You just repeat the same phrases over and over and over and over .....and over....(10 minutes later)...and over and over!!!