Palestine Today

[P F Tinmore]

The San Remo Conference and the Balfour Declaration preceded that.

Aside from that, isn't it futile to go over this ground again and again and again? Israel is a member state of the U.N. It will never be destroyed. A Palestinian state was declared in the West Bank in 1988, and most of the world recognizes that entity, actually. Wouldn't it make more sense to direct your efforts in that direction? It's been 3 generations since 1948, and its citizens there consider themselves full Israelis, including its Christians, Druze and even some Muslims. I don't know how you don't get bored going around in the same circles so many times.

Notice how he refused 2 answer my question? Pro Palestinian Bull Shit of course

Your question was a deflection.

The San Remo Conference and the Balfour Declaration preceded that.

Aside from that, isn't it futile to go over this ground again and again and again? Israel is a member state of the U.N. It will never be destroyed. A Palestinian state was declared in the West Bank in 1988, and most of the world recognizes that entity, actually. Wouldn't it make more sense to direct your efforts in that direction? It's been 3 generations since 1948, and its citizens there consider themselves full Israelis, including its Christians, Druze and even some Muslims. I don't know how you don't get bored going around in the same circles so many times.

Notice how he refused 2 answer my question? Pro Palestinian Bull Shit of course

Your question was a deflection.

No it wasn’t. I asked you to explain the “ difference “ between borders and “ Armistice Lines . You either can’t or won’t
IF they weren’t borders in the first place; Israel is not mandated to go back to them.

The question that you ducked is why does everyone use armistice lines for Israel's borders instead of using real borders?

Armistice lines are only lines that military forces cannot cross.

Only the people who believe in two states mention the "67 borders."

Then please tell us why we hear so much about the “ Two State Solution “ on the “ 67 Border”and why the “International Community “ recognizes it as such

The only reason for a two state solution is to protect Israel.

 

[ForeverYoung436]

Notice how he refused 2 answer my question? Pro Palestinian Bull Shit of course

Your question was a deflection.

Notice how he refused 2 answer my question? Pro Palestinian Bull Shit of course

Your question was a deflection.

No it wasn’t. I asked you to explain the “ difference “ between borders and “ Armistice Lines . You either can’t or won’t
IF they weren’t borders in the first place; Israel is not mandated to go back to them.

The question that you ducked is why does everyone use armistice lines for Israel's borders instead of using real borders?

Armistice lines are only lines that military forces cannot cross.

Only the people who believe in two states mention the "67 borders."

Then please tell us why we hear so much about the “ Two State Solution “ on the “ 67 Border”and why the “International Community “ recognizes it as such

The only reason for a two state solution is to protect Israel.

Well, it can either be 2 states, Israel and "New Palestine", as Jared wants to call it, or one state that is Israel. If you want one state called Palestine, that is not even an option.

 

[USAF 2023]

Notice how he refused 2 answer my question? Pro Palestinian Bull Shit of course

Your question was a deflection.

Notice how he refused 2 answer my question? Pro Palestinian Bull Shit of course

Your question was a deflection.

No it wasn’t. I asked you to explain the “ difference “ between borders and “ Armistice Lines . You either can’t or won’t
IF they weren’t borders in the first place; Israel is not mandated to go back to them.

The question that you ducked is why does everyone use armistice lines for Israel's borders instead of using real borders?

Armistice lines are only lines that military forces cannot cross.

Only the people who believe in two states mention the "67 borders."

Then please tell us why we hear so much about the “ Two State Solution “ on the “ 67 Border”and why the “International Community “ recognizes it as such

The only reason for a two state solution is to protect Israel.

The Two State Solution ensures that the Jewish people have a voice instead of forever being silenced by the Arab majority and having access to their Religious Sites

 

[toastman]

RE: Palestine Today
※→ P F Tinmore, et al,

I don't think I directed against fallacious speech against the HoAP position they are maintaining.

Oh my, so much slime.

Are hit pieces all you post?

(COMMENT)

None of my posts are intentionally written aimed at sway the discussion opinion by presenting false or biased information. It is what it is → being descriptive of real-world events.


Most Respectfully,
R

Are you kidding? Your posts are full of name calling and slime.

You pretend that meaningless stuff is legitimate like always bringing up Israel's territorial integrity. What does that mean when Israel is an undefined blob inside Palestine's international borders?

Uhhh, Israel has defined borders. Palestine does not. That is a fact no matter how hard you try to twist it around Tinmore.

 

[toastman]

RE: Palestine Today
※→ P F Tinmore, et al,

This is another example of misleading information and purposefully disinformation.

FIRST: What is the Rule of Law (RoL) on this matter.

ARTICLE 3 • CONVENTION ON RIGHTS AND DUTIES OF STATES

The political existence of the state is independent of recognition by the other states. Even before recognition the state has the right to defend its integrity and independence, to provide for its conservation and prosperity, and consequently to organize itself as it sees fit, to legislate upon its interests, administer its services, and to define the jurisdiction and competence of its courts.

The exercise of these rights has no other limitation than the exercise of the rights of other states according to international law​

Israeli territory is always defined by armistice lines. The armistice lines were specifically not to be political or territorial borders.

So...

(COMMENT)

What does this mean? (RHETORICAL) It means that the State of Israel (ie NOT You!) decides what the boundaries exist. No matter what your argument may be, it is invalid under the RoL. Israel, in the broad scope of the issue, affixes the boundaries within the current delineation of active treaties and ceasefire lines. Your interpretation of the Armistice Limitations does not matter since, relative to the West Bank (including Jerusalem) and the Gaza Strip, the Armistice Agreements no longer set the conditions for any recognition of the delineation. These Armistice Agreements are for historical use only. The Green Line, and its track, only exists for reference.

The RoL states:

◈ Recognition of Israel is independent.
◈ Israel has the right to defend its integrity and independence.
◈ These rights have no other limitation under international law.​

With the exception of the Golan Heights (annexed and protected by Israeli Authorities and defense forces), the remained of the boundaries are set by formal written international agreements entered into by the concerned parties under RoL. (Again NOT you!)

Israel looks something like this. The Boundaries are (in reality) clearly established on the ground and enforced. They are unmistakable and unambiguous in the air, on the sea, and on the ground. (Even a blind man will encounter them.)

View attachment 297125 View attachment 297126​

Most Respectfully,
R

ARTICLE 3 • CONVENTION ON RIGHTS AND DUTIES OF STATES

The political existence of the state is independent of recognition by the other states. Even before recognition the state has the right to defend its integrity and independence, to provide for its conservation and prosperity, and consequently to organize itself as it sees fit, to legislate upon its interests, administer its services, and to define the jurisdiction and competence of its courts.

The exercise of these rights has no other limitation than the exercise of the rights of other states according to international law

Indeed.

PALESTINE PROGRESS REPORT OF THE UNITED NATIONS
MEDIATOR ON PALESTINE

CABLEGRAM DATED 28 SEPTEMBER 1948 FROM THE PREMIER AND
ACTING FOREIGN SECRETARY OF ALL-PALESTINE GOVERNMENT
TO THE SECRETARY-GENERAL CONCERNING
CONSTITUTION OF ALL-PALESTINE GOVERNMENT​

28 September 1948​

I HAVE THE HONOR TO INFORM YOUR EXCELLENCY THAT IN VIRTUE OF THE NATURAL RIGHT OF THE PEOPLE OF PALESTINE FOR SELF-DETERMINATION WHICH PRINCIPLE IS SUPPORTED BY THE CHARTERS OF THE LEAGUE OF NATIONS, THE UNITED NATIONS AND OTHERS AND IN VIEW OF THE TERMINATION OF THE BRITISH MANDATE OVER PALESTINE WHICH HAD PREVENTED THE ARABS FROM EXERCISING THEIR INDEPENDENCE, THE ARABS OF PALESTINE WHO ARE THE OWNERS OF THE COUNTRY AND ITS INDIGENOUS INHABITANTS AND WHO CONSTITUTE THE GREAT MAJORITY OF ITS LEGAL POPULATION HAVE SOLEMNLY RESOLVED TO DECLARE PALESTINE IN ITS ENTIRETY AND WITHIN ITS BOUNDARIES AS ESTABLISHED BEFORE THE TERMINATION OF THE BRITISH MANDATE AN INDEPENDENT STATE AND CONSTITUTED A GOVERNMENT UNDER THE NAME OF THE ALL-PALESTINE GOVERNMENT DERIVING ITS AUTHORITY FROM A REPRESENTATIVE COUNCIL BASED ON DEMOCRATIC PRINCIPLES AND AIMING TO SAFEGUARD THE RIGHTS OF MINORITIES AND FOREIGNERS PROTECT THE HOLY PLACES AND GUARANTEE FREEDOM OF WORSHIP TO ALL COMMUNITIES

AHMED HILMI PASHA
PREMIER AND ACTING FOREIGN SECRETARY​

https://unispal.un.org/DPA/DPR/unis...62b1867e967323068025648e0041673d?OpenDocument

May I remind you that this was before the UN carved Palestine into three areas of occupation.

So, I read your post twice, and nowhere does it prove that Israel does not have defined borders. The other posters CLEARLY indicated, with links, the fact that Israel has borders.

You lost Tinmore. Again. Take it like a man..

 

[RoccoR]

RE: Palestine Today
※→ P F Tinmore, et al,

Let's get one thing straight right now (in regards to the West Bank, Jerusalem, and the Gaza Strip • WB-J-GS). The Israel Defense Force (IDF) did not move forward and place any Arab Palestinian territory under its occupation. Over time, the ground-truth conditions evolved until it became politically acceptable to express the evolving situation in that way.

◈ The IDF established very necesssary and effective control over the certain territory • which were in 1948 • territories once held under mandate and transitioning into the International Trustee System (ITS). This assumption of control was made necessary to defend against the Forces of the Arab League taking control of the entirety of the Territory Formerly Under the Mandate for Palestine and which included those lands in which the Israelis declared independence; and assume Article 1 Authority (Montevideo Convention 1933) with regards to their independence. In 1948, the Arab Palestinians did not have any political authority over any of the Territory Formerly Under the Mandate for Palestine.

◈ In the period immediately proceeding the 1948 Conflict, the Arab Higher Committee rejected the territory alloted and adopted by the UN. So, the Arab Palestinians never establish any actual functioning government and political authority over any territory.

◈ So! At that point, as recorded in the various Armistice Agreements of 1949, the Arab Palestinians of that period were under the political authority of either Israel, Jordan, or Egypt. But NO faction of the Arab Palestinians were a party to the Armistice.

◈ In 1967, with regards to the WB-J-GS, Israeli engagement with Arab League Forces lead to a complex territorial control. For the WB-J, Israel had effective control, but the territory was under the political soveriengty of Jordan. For the GS, Israel had effective control, but the territory was still considered a political protectorate of Egypt. So! Under Article 42 of the Hague Regulation, once the actually territory was placed under the authority of the IDF, it became either Egyptian territory occupied by the IDF - or - Jordanian territory occupied by the IDF.

In 1974, the Palestine Liberation Organization (PLO) became the sole legitimate representative of the Palestinian people in any Palestinian territory that is liberated. From that point the PLO Palestinian territory that is liberated.

◈ This situation remained stable until 1979 and the Israelis and the Egyptian concluded a Peace Treaty and the Egyptians relinquished any authority pertaining to the GS.

◈ In 1988, Jordan exercies what it termed as "cutting all ties" with the WB-J. This amounted to a political abandonment of the WB-J. By default, the country maintaining effective control over the WB-J (israel) became the political authority.

◈ That same year (1988) the PLO, sole legitimate representative of the Palestinian people, but over what territory was confusing.

◈ In 1993 and 1995, the Oslo Accords were signed between the PLO and the State of Israel. This ultimately lead to the unilateral withdraw by the Israelis from the GS in 2005. At that point, the GS, by the agreed upon conditions, became the Political Authority over the Gaza Strip.​

◈ The All Palestine Government never had independent control over any of the territories it claims.

Are you saying that an occupation voids peoples rights?

(COMMENT)

ANSWER: Occupation is a term defined by the Hague Regulation. It is actually a place under the authority of the IDF and makes the IDF take all the measures in his power to restore, and ensure, as far as possible, public order and safety.

Other than the Gaza Strip, which in only the very loose sense, is the only Palestinian territory that is liberated.

By Agreement, the PLO/PA became responsible for complete civil and security control by the within Area "A."


Most Respectfully,
R

 

[ForeverYoung436]

RE: Palestine Today
※→ P F Tinmore, et al,

Let's get one thing straight right now (in regards to the West Bank, Jerusalem, and the Gaza Strip • WB-J-GS). The Israel Defense Force (IDF) did not move forward and place any Arab Palestinian territory under its occupation. Over time, the ground-truth conditions evolved until it became politically acceptable to express the evolving situation in that way.

◈ The IDF established very necesssary and effective control over the certain territory • which were in 1948 • territories once held under mandate and transitioning into the International Trustee System (ITS). This assumption of control was made necessary to defend against the Forces of the Arab League taking control of the entirety of the Territory Formerly Under the Mandate for Palestine and which included those lands in which the Israelis declared independence; and assume Article 1 Authority (Montevideo Convention 1933) with regards to their independence. In 1948, the Arab Palestinians did not have any political authority over any of the Territory Formerly Under the Mandate for Palestine.

◈ In the period immediately proceeding the 1948 Conflict, the Arab Higher Committee rejected the territory alloted and adopted by the UN. So, the Arab Palestinians never establish any actual functioning government and political authority over any territory.

◈ So! At that point, as recorded in the various Armistice Agreements of 1949, the Arab Palestinians of that period were under the political authority of either Israel, Jordan, or Egypt. But NO faction of the Arab Palestinians were a party to the Armistice.

◈ In 1967, with regards to the WB-J-GS, Israeli engagement with Arab League Forces lead to a complex territorial control. For the WB-J, Israel had effective control, but the territory was under the political soveriengty of Jordan. For the GS, Israel had effective control, but the territory was still considered a political protectorate of Egypt. So! Under Article 42 of the Hague Regulation, once the actually territory was placed under the authority of the IDF, it became either Egyptian territory occupied by the IDF - or - Jordanian territory occupied by the IDF.

In 1974, the Palestine Liberation Organization (PLO) became the sole legitimate representative of the Palestinian people in any Palestinian territory that is liberated. From that point the PLO Palestinian territory that is liberated.

◈ This situation remained stable until 1979 and the Israelis and the Egyptian concluded a Peace Treaty and the Egyptians relinquished any authority pertaining to the GS.

◈ In 1988, Jordan exercies what it termed as "cutting all ties" with the WB-J. This amounted to a political abandonment of the WB-J. By default, the country maintaining effective control over the WB-J (israel) became the political authority.

◈ That same year (1988) the PLO, sole legitimate representative of the Palestinian people, but over what territory was confusing.

◈ In 1993 and 1995, the Oslo Accords were signed between the PLO and the State of Israel. This ultimately lead to the unilateral withdraw by the Israelis from the GS in 2005. At that point, the GS, by the agreed upon conditions, became the Political Authority over the Gaza Strip.​

◈ The All Palestine Government never had independent control over any of the territories it claims.

Are you saying that an occupation voids peoples rights?

(COMMENT)

ANSWER: Occupation is a term defined by the Hague Regulation. It is actually a place under the authority of the IDF and makes the IDF take all the measures in his power to restore, and ensure, as far as possible, public order and safety.

Other than the Gaza Strip, which in only the very loose sense, is the only Palestinian territory that is liberated.

By Agreement, the PLO/PA became responsible for complete civil and security control by the within Area "A."


Most Respectfully,
R

If I remember correctly, the PLO declared independence in the territories of the West Bank and the Gaza Strip in November of 1988. Jordan had relinquished that same territory (the West Bank) in July of 1988.

 

[P F Tinmore]

RE: Palestine Today
※→ P F Tinmore, et al,

Let's get one thing straight right now (in regards to the West Bank, Jerusalem, and the Gaza Strip • WB-J-GS). The Israel Defense Force (IDF) did not move forward and place any Arab Palestinian territory under its occupation. Over time, the ground-truth conditions evolved until it became politically acceptable to express the evolving situation in that way.

◈ The IDF established very necesssary and effective control over the certain territory • which were in 1948 • territories once held under mandate and transitioning into the International Trustee System (ITS). This assumption of control was made necessary to defend against the Forces of the Arab League taking control of the entirety of the Territory Formerly Under the Mandate for Palestine and which included those lands in which the Israelis declared independence; and assume Article 1 Authority (Montevideo Convention 1933) with regards to their independence. In 1948, the Arab Palestinians did not have any political authority over any of the Territory Formerly Under the Mandate for Palestine.

◈ In the period immediately proceeding the 1948 Conflict, the Arab Higher Committee rejected the territory alloted and adopted by the UN. So, the Arab Palestinians never establish any actual functioning government and political authority over any territory.

◈ So! At that point, as recorded in the various Armistice Agreements of 1949, the Arab Palestinians of that period were under the political authority of either Israel, Jordan, or Egypt. But NO faction of the Arab Palestinians were a party to the Armistice.

◈ In 1967, with regards to the WB-J-GS, Israeli engagement with Arab League Forces lead to a complex territorial control. For the WB-J, Israel had effective control, but the territory was under the political soveriengty of Jordan. For the GS, Israel had effective control, but the territory was still considered a political protectorate of Egypt. So! Under Article 42 of the Hague Regulation, once the actually territory was placed under the authority of the IDF, it became either Egyptian territory occupied by the IDF - or - Jordanian territory occupied by the IDF.

In 1974, the Palestine Liberation Organization (PLO) became the sole legitimate representative of the Palestinian people in any Palestinian territory that is liberated. From that point the PLO Palestinian territory that is liberated.

◈ This situation remained stable until 1979 and the Israelis and the Egyptian concluded a Peace Treaty and the Egyptians relinquished any authority pertaining to the GS.

◈ In 1988, Jordan exercies what it termed as "cutting all ties" with the WB-J. This amounted to a political abandonment of the WB-J. By default, the country maintaining effective control over the WB-J (israel) became the political authority.

◈ That same year (1988) the PLO, sole legitimate representative of the Palestinian people, but over what territory was confusing.

◈ In 1993 and 1995, the Oslo Accords were signed between the PLO and the State of Israel. This ultimately lead to the unilateral withdraw by the Israelis from the GS in 2005. At that point, the GS, by the agreed upon conditions, became the Political Authority over the Gaza Strip.​

◈ The All Palestine Government never had independent control over any of the territories it claims.

Are you saying that an occupation voids peoples rights?

(COMMENT)

ANSWER: Occupation is a term defined by the Hague Regulation. It is actually a place under the authority of the IDF and makes the IDF take all the measures in his power to restore, and ensure, as far as possible, public order and safety.

Other than the Gaza Strip, which in only the very loose sense, is the only Palestinian territory that is liberated.

By Agreement, the PLO/PA became responsible for complete civil and security control by the within Area "A."


Most Respectfully,
R

◈ So! At that point, as recorded in the various Armistice Agreements of 1949, the Arab Palestinians of that period were under the political authority of either Israel, Jordan, or Egypt. But NO faction of the Arab Palestinians were a party to the Armistice.

The Palestinians declared independence before the armistice agreements The Palestinians were not a part of the 1948 war.

 

[P F Tinmore]

RE: Palestine Today
※→ P F Tinmore, et al,

Let's get one thing straight right now (in regards to the West Bank, Jerusalem, and the Gaza Strip • WB-J-GS). The Israel Defense Force (IDF) did not move forward and place any Arab Palestinian territory under its occupation. Over time, the ground-truth conditions evolved until it became politically acceptable to express the evolving situation in that way.

◈ The IDF established very necesssary and effective control over the certain territory • which were in 1948 • territories once held under mandate and transitioning into the International Trustee System (ITS). This assumption of control was made necessary to defend against the Forces of the Arab League taking control of the entirety of the Territory Formerly Under the Mandate for Palestine and which included those lands in which the Israelis declared independence; and assume Article 1 Authority (Montevideo Convention 1933) with regards to their independence. In 1948, the Arab Palestinians did not have any political authority over any of the Territory Formerly Under the Mandate for Palestine.

◈ In the period immediately proceeding the 1948 Conflict, the Arab Higher Committee rejected the territory alloted and adopted by the UN. So, the Arab Palestinians never establish any actual functioning government and political authority over any territory.

◈ So! At that point, as recorded in the various Armistice Agreements of 1949, the Arab Palestinians of that period were under the political authority of either Israel, Jordan, or Egypt. But NO faction of the Arab Palestinians were a party to the Armistice.

◈ In 1967, with regards to the WB-J-GS, Israeli engagement with Arab League Forces lead to a complex territorial control. For the WB-J, Israel had effective control, but the territory was under the political soveriengty of Jordan. For the GS, Israel had effective control, but the territory was still considered a political protectorate of Egypt. So! Under Article 42 of the Hague Regulation, once the actually territory was placed under the authority of the IDF, it became either Egyptian territory occupied by the IDF - or - Jordanian territory occupied by the IDF.

In 1974, the Palestine Liberation Organization (PLO) became the sole legitimate representative of the Palestinian people in any Palestinian territory that is liberated. From that point the PLO Palestinian territory that is liberated.

◈ This situation remained stable until 1979 and the Israelis and the Egyptian concluded a Peace Treaty and the Egyptians relinquished any authority pertaining to the GS.

◈ In 1988, Jordan exercies what it termed as "cutting all ties" with the WB-J. This amounted to a political abandonment of the WB-J. By default, the country maintaining effective control over the WB-J (israel) became the political authority.

◈ That same year (1988) the PLO, sole legitimate representative of the Palestinian people, but over what territory was confusing.

◈ In 1993 and 1995, the Oslo Accords were signed between the PLO and the State of Israel. This ultimately lead to the unilateral withdraw by the Israelis from the GS in 2005. At that point, the GS, by the agreed upon conditions, became the Political Authority over the Gaza Strip.​

◈ The All Palestine Government never had independent control over any of the territories it claims.

Are you saying that an occupation voids peoples rights?

(COMMENT)

ANSWER: Occupation is a term defined by the Hague Regulation. It is actually a place under the authority of the IDF and makes the IDF take all the measures in his power to restore, and ensure, as far as possible, public order and safety.

Other than the Gaza Strip, which in only the very loose sense, is the only Palestinian territory that is liberated.

By Agreement, the PLO/PA became responsible for complete civil and security control by the within Area "A."


Most Respectfully,
R

All that just to duck a question?

 

[P F Tinmore]

 

[ForeverYoung436]

RE: Palestine Today
※→ P F Tinmore, et al,

I don't think I directed against fallacious speech against the HoAP position they are maintaining.

Oh my, so much slime.

Are hit pieces all you post?

(COMMENT)

None of my posts are intentionally written aimed at sway the discussion opinion by presenting false or biased information. It is what it is → being descriptive of real-world events.


Most Respectfully,
R

Are you kidding? Your posts are full of name calling and slime.

You pretend that meaningless stuff is legitimate like always bringing up Israel's territorial integrity. What does that mean when Israel is an undefined blob inside Palestine's international borders?

Uhhh, Israel has defined borders. Palestine does not. That is a fact no matter how hard you try to twist it around Tinmore.

Israel has defined borders with Egypt and Jordan, by treaty.

 

[P F Tinmore]

 

[P F Tinmore]

IOF kidnaps Palestinian child in al-Khalil

AL-KHALIL, (PIC)

The Israeli occupation forces (IOF) on Sunday arrested a Palestinian child in al-Arroub refugee camp north of al-Khalil City in the southern West Bank.

Local sources said that the IOF kidnapped Isa al-Titi, 14, at the entrance of al-Arroub refugee camp.

Read more at
IOF kidnaps Palestinian child in al-Khalil
@Copyright The Palestinian Information Center

 

[ForeverYoung436]

RE: Palestine Today
※→ P F Tinmore, et al,

Let's get one thing straight right now (in regards to the West Bank, Jerusalem, and the Gaza Strip • WB-J-GS). The Israel Defense Force (IDF) did not move forward and place any Arab Palestinian territory under its occupation. Over time, the ground-truth conditions evolved until it became politically acceptable to express the evolving situation in that way.

◈ The IDF established very necesssary and effective control over the certain territory • which were in 1948 • territories once held under mandate and transitioning into the International Trustee System (ITS). This assumption of control was made necessary to defend against the Forces of the Arab League taking control of the entirety of the Territory Formerly Under the Mandate for Palestine and which included those lands in which the Israelis declared independence; and assume Article 1 Authority (Montevideo Convention 1933) with regards to their independence. In 1948, the Arab Palestinians did not have any political authority over any of the Territory Formerly Under the Mandate for Palestine.

◈ In the period immediately proceeding the 1948 Conflict, the Arab Higher Committee rejected the territory alloted and adopted by the UN. So, the Arab Palestinians never establish any actual functioning government and political authority over any territory.

◈ So! At that point, as recorded in the various Armistice Agreements of 1949, the Arab Palestinians of that period were under the political authority of either Israel, Jordan, or Egypt. But NO faction of the Arab Palestinians were a party to the Armistice.

◈ In 1967, with regards to the WB-J-GS, Israeli engagement with Arab League Forces lead to a complex territorial control. For the WB-J, Israel had effective control, but the territory was under the political soveriengty of Jordan. For the GS, Israel had effective control, but the territory was still considered a political protectorate of Egypt. So! Under Article 42 of the Hague Regulation, once the actually territory was placed under the authority of the IDF, it became either Egyptian territory occupied by the IDF - or - Jordanian territory occupied by the IDF.

In 1974, the Palestine Liberation Organization (PLO) became the sole legitimate representative of the Palestinian people in any Palestinian territory that is liberated. From that point the PLO Palestinian territory that is liberated.

◈ This situation remained stable until 1979 and the Israelis and the Egyptian concluded a Peace Treaty and the Egyptians relinquished any authority pertaining to the GS.

◈ In 1988, Jordan exercies what it termed as "cutting all ties" with the WB-J. This amounted to a political abandonment of the WB-J. By default, the country maintaining effective control over the WB-J (israel) became the political authority.

◈ That same year (1988) the PLO, sole legitimate representative of the Palestinian people, but over what territory was confusing.

◈ In 1993 and 1995, the Oslo Accords were signed between the PLO and the State of Israel. This ultimately lead to the unilateral withdraw by the Israelis from the GS in 2005. At that point, the GS, by the agreed upon conditions, became the Political Authority over the Gaza Strip.​

◈ The All Palestine Government never had independent control over any of the territories it claims.

Are you saying that an occupation voids peoples rights?

(COMMENT)

ANSWER: Occupation is a term defined by the Hague Regulation. It is actually a place under the authority of the IDF and makes the IDF take all the measures in his power to restore, and ensure, as far as possible, public order and safety.

Other than the Gaza Strip, which in only the very loose sense, is the only Palestinian territory that is liberated.

By Agreement, the PLO/PA became responsible for complete civil and security control by the within Area "A."


Most Respectfully,
R

◈ So! At that point, as recorded in the various Armistice Agreements of 1949, the Arab Palestinians of that period were under the political authority of either Israel, Jordan, or Egypt. But NO faction of the Arab Palestinians were a party to the Armistice.

The Palestinians declared independence before the armistice agreements The Palestinians were not a part of the 1948 war.

Their little-known declaration of independence in 1948 came just a little too late to be taken seriously. And Egypt was in charge of that. The 1988 declaration was more internationally recognized. It would be smarter for you to hold onto that, from a legal standpoint.

 

[P F Tinmore]

RE: Palestine Today
※→ P F Tinmore, et al,

Let's get one thing straight right now (in regards to the West Bank, Jerusalem, and the Gaza Strip • WB-J-GS). The Israel Defense Force (IDF) did not move forward and place any Arab Palestinian territory under its occupation. Over time, the ground-truth conditions evolved until it became politically acceptable to express the evolving situation in that way.

◈ The IDF established very necesssary and effective control over the certain territory • which were in 1948 • territories once held under mandate and transitioning into the International Trustee System (ITS). This assumption of control was made necessary to defend against the Forces of the Arab League taking control of the entirety of the Territory Formerly Under the Mandate for Palestine and which included those lands in which the Israelis declared independence; and assume Article 1 Authority (Montevideo Convention 1933) with regards to their independence. In 1948, the Arab Palestinians did not have any political authority over any of the Territory Formerly Under the Mandate for Palestine.

◈ In the period immediately proceeding the 1948 Conflict, the Arab Higher Committee rejected the territory alloted and adopted by the UN. So, the Arab Palestinians never establish any actual functioning government and political authority over any territory.

◈ So! At that point, as recorded in the various Armistice Agreements of 1949, the Arab Palestinians of that period were under the political authority of either Israel, Jordan, or Egypt. But NO faction of the Arab Palestinians were a party to the Armistice.

◈ In 1967, with regards to the WB-J-GS, Israeli engagement with Arab League Forces lead to a complex territorial control. For the WB-J, Israel had effective control, but the territory was under the political soveriengty of Jordan. For the GS, Israel had effective control, but the territory was still considered a political protectorate of Egypt. So! Under Article 42 of the Hague Regulation, once the actually territory was placed under the authority of the IDF, it became either Egyptian territory occupied by the IDF - or - Jordanian territory occupied by the IDF.

In 1974, the Palestine Liberation Organization (PLO) became the sole legitimate representative of the Palestinian people in any Palestinian territory that is liberated. From that point the PLO Palestinian territory that is liberated.

◈ This situation remained stable until 1979 and the Israelis and the Egyptian concluded a Peace Treaty and the Egyptians relinquished any authority pertaining to the GS.

◈ In 1988, Jordan exercies what it termed as "cutting all ties" with the WB-J. This amounted to a political abandonment of the WB-J. By default, the country maintaining effective control over the WB-J (israel) became the political authority.

◈ That same year (1988) the PLO, sole legitimate representative of the Palestinian people, but over what territory was confusing.

◈ In 1993 and 1995, the Oslo Accords were signed between the PLO and the State of Israel. This ultimately lead to the unilateral withdraw by the Israelis from the GS in 2005. At that point, the GS, by the agreed upon conditions, became the Political Authority over the Gaza Strip.​

◈ The All Palestine Government never had independent control over any of the territories it claims.

Are you saying that an occupation voids peoples rights?

(COMMENT)

ANSWER: Occupation is a term defined by the Hague Regulation. It is actually a place under the authority of the IDF and makes the IDF take all the measures in his power to restore, and ensure, as far as possible, public order and safety.

Other than the Gaza Strip, which in only the very loose sense, is the only Palestinian territory that is liberated.

By Agreement, the PLO/PA became responsible for complete civil and security control by the within Area "A."


Most Respectfully,
R

◈ So! At that point, as recorded in the various Armistice Agreements of 1949, the Arab Palestinians of that period were under the political authority of either Israel, Jordan, or Egypt. But NO faction of the Arab Palestinians were a party to the Armistice.

The Palestinians declared independence before the armistice agreements The Palestinians were not a part of the 1948 war.

Their little-known declaration of independence in 1948 came just a little too late to be taken seriously. And Egypt was in charge of that. The 1988 declaration was more internationally recognized. It would be smarter for you to hold onto that, from a legal standpoint.

Their little-known declaration of independence in 1948 came just a little too late to be taken seriously. And Egypt was in charge of that.

It was reported to the UN.

What do you mean too late?

 

[RoccoR]

RE: Palestine Today
⁜→ P F Tinmore, et al,

◈ So! At that point, as recorded in the various Armistice Agreements of 1949, the Arab Palestinians of that period were under the political authority of either Israel, Jordan, or Egypt. But NO faction of the Arab Palestinians were a party to the Armistice.

The Palestinians declared independence before the armistice agreements The Palestinians were not a part of the 1948 war.

(COMMENT)

Yes, that is the one message sent by the All Palestine Government (September 1948). However, that declaration was not valid as it came after the Israeli Declaration (May 1948).

Tha Palestineswere not part of the conflict as a participating nation. Therefore not a signatory to any Armistice. Therefore, at the time of the Armistice, the Arab Palestinians had no political control over any territory.


Most Respectfully,
R

 

[RoccoR]

RE: Palestine Today
※→ P F Tinmore, et al,

(COMMENT)

ANSWER: Occupation is a term defined by the Hague Regulation. It is actually a place under the authority of the IDF and makes the IDF take all the measures in his power to restore, and ensure, as far as possible, public order and safety.

Other than the Gaza Strip, which in only the very loose sense, is the only Palestinian territory that is liberated.

By Agreement, the PLO/PA became responsible for complete civil and security control by the within Area "A."

All that just to duck a question?

(COMMENT)

Exactly what question did I duck?


Most Respectfully,
R

 

[RoccoR]

RE: Palestine Today
※→ P F Tinmore, et al,

IOF kidnaps Palestinian child in al-Khalil

The Israeli occupation forces (IOF) on Sunday arrested a Palestinian child in al-Arroub refugee camp north of al-Khalil City in the southern West Bank.

Local sources said that the IOF kidnapped Isa al-Titi, 14, at the entrance of al-Arroub refugee camp.

Read more at
IOF kidnaps Palestinian child in al-Khalil
@Copyright The Palestinian Information Center

(QUESTION)

Just who did the Israelis kidnap the child from? There is something wrong with this story.


Most Respectfully,
R

 

[USAF 2023]

RE: Palestine Today
※→ P F Tinmore, et al,

IOF kidnaps Palestinian child in al-Khalil

The Israeli occupation forces (IOF) on Sunday arrested a Palestinian child in al-Arroub refugee camp north of al-Khalil City in the southern West Bank.

Local sources said that the IOF kidnapped Isa al-Titi, 14, at the entrance of al-Arroub refugee camp.

Read more at
IOF kidnaps Palestinian child in al-Khalil
@Copyright The Palestinian Information Center

(QUESTION)

Just who did the Israelis kidnap the child from? There is something wrong with this story.


Most Respectfully,
R

He wants the posters to believe the Israeli troops just roam the streets “ arresting little innocent children” We all know he lies

 

[P F Tinmore]

RE: Palestine Today
⁜→ P F Tinmore, et al,

◈ So! At that point, as recorded in the various Armistice Agreements of 1949, the Arab Palestinians of that period were under the political authority of either Israel, Jordan, or Egypt. But NO faction of the Arab Palestinians were a party to the Armistice.

The Palestinians declared independence before the armistice agreements The Palestinians were not a part of the 1948 war.

(COMMENT)

Yes, that is the one message sent by the All Palestine Government (September 1948). However, that declaration was not valid as it came after the Israeli Declaration (May 1948).

Tha Palestineswere not part of the conflict as a participating nation. Therefore not a signatory to any Armistice. Therefore, at the time of the Armistice, the Arab Palestinians had no political control over any territory.


Most Respectfully,
R

However, that declaration was not valid as it came after the Israeli Declaration (May 1948).

How so?

the Arab Palestinians had no political control over any territory.

Here again, are you saying that occupation voids the Palestinian's rights?