Also, Mueller's charges against the Russians and the other foreign individuals being indicted were not because he thought they would ever be tried inside a U.S. Court, but their indictments were Mueller's way of telling the public he had indeed found Russian interference, and to help build a case for others. If he indicted Americans without ANY indictments of foreign actors, the defense could use that in the trial. How could a U.S. citizens conspire with a foreign entity if the prosecution never indicted a foreign entity for a crime?