No it doesn't. Your assertions to the contrary mean nothing.
You have not cited one single statute or case in any of your claims. You made the false statement that the penalties were imposed for felonious acts. You claim that the banks were defrauded, but you cannot explain why they are not receiving any restitution.
You have no clue what the law says, and you have demonstrated over and over again that you don't understand the difference between equitable relief and punitive sanctions.
8th Amendment applies, and Statute of Limitations:
Sotomayor writing for the majority in
Kokesh:
‘A civil sanction that cannot fairly be said
solely to serve a remedial purpose, but rather can only be explained as also serving either retributive or deterrent purposes, is punishment, as we have come to understand the term.’ "
Id., at 621,
113 S.Ct. 2801 ; cf.
Bajakajian,524 U.S., at 331, n. 6,
118 S.Ct. 2028 ("[A] modern statutory forfeiture is a ‘fine’ for Eighth Amendment purposes if it constitutes punishment even in part"). Because disgorgement orders "go beyond compensation, are intended to punish, and label defendants wrongdoers" as a consequence of violating public laws, Gabelli,568 U.S., at 451–452, 133 S.Ct. 1216 they represent a penalty and thus fall within the 5–year statute of limitations of § 2462.
Kokesh v. Sec. & Exch. Comm'n, 137 S. Ct. 1635, 1645 (2017)