I STILL don't know how making people piss in their proper sex designated bathrooms is discrimination..
In actuality, the discrimination is in allowing SOME men into the women's restroom, but not others.
how does it do that?
The trans male is simalarily situated to the non trans male.
What the DOJ did by filing a civil rights law suit was declare that the State was discriminating by denying access to the Woman's restroom to individuals that are apparently "simalarily situated", the trans male.
Now, once the trans male is allowed access, and since the trans male is much closer to being simalarily situated to the non trans male, to deny access to the non trans male is discrimination based on an arbitrary rule. Thus illegal.
It's actually funny how this flips the argument that gay activists used to get same sex marriage bans overturned.
There argument was that gays were being excluded from marriage because it was an arbitrary rule.
They said that some hetro coupled couldn't or wouldn't have children, so a same sex couple was simalarily situated to the baron hetro couples
So if this is true, and the courts find that the trans male can be in the woman's restroom, then the male can claim he is "simalarly situated" to the trans male, and his exclussion is completely arbitrary
If non trans males are excluded by law, what the law would be saying is that a male with a dick is not simalar to another male with a dick.
If that's the case, then a same sex couple could not meet the simalarily situated criteria and states could, once again, ban Same Sex Marriage
Strange, but I've always said, progressives eat their own.