Back in the 1800s, we had the Missouri Compromise on the issue of free and slave states by keeping the balance of admitting one free state for every slave state. What if we admitted Puerto Rico and DC as liberal states and then add East California and South Virginia to keep the balance?
What balance are you referring to? The balance that has a Republican "majority" in the Senate that represents 20 million fewer people than the Democratic "minority" if the GOP wins both races in Georgia? Or is it the balance that allows the Republicans to win the presidential election 3 times since the early 90's while winning the popular vote only once? Or is it the balance that makes thanks to Gerrymandering that winning the house means the Democrats have to run about 4 percent ahead on average? Is that the balance you are referring to?
3 times? So you are saying Trump won this time also? Also, where do the 90's come in? So far, Bush and Trump beat Algore and Shrillary in 2000 and 2016 respectively.
When I'm talking about the results of the popular votes in previous elections I think it is obvious I'm speaking of INDIVIDUAL election cycles. But hey if you want to claim you really don't understand basic English be my guest.
It's pretty ironic that in an OP that invokes the early part of the 19th century and an agreement made between slave states and free states (I'll refrain from gaslightighting you by asking you if you consider the current Southern States as slave states) , you are questioning the relevance of me invoking the election results of the last 2 decades.
Now can you please engage my premise. When you speak of "balance", are you speaking of a "balance" that allows for a minority to consistently win elections without a plurality of votes?