Then what does the law do? What is its purpose?
Be specific and give specific examples.
You've already been told a hundred times. Apparently you still can't read.
No, I haven't.
Tell me then. Does this law allow a Catholic hospital to refuse to treat homosexuals? Does this law allow a Catholic hospital to refuse to hire homosexuals?
Can that hospital use a religious argument under this law to justify the above?
This law has NOTHING TO DO WITH WHETHER OR NOT CATHOLIC HOSPITALS MAY OR MAY NOT REFUSE TO TREAT HOMOSEXUALS.
This law has NOTHING TO DO WITH WHETHER OR NOT CATHOLIC HOSPITALS MAY OR MAY NOT REFUSE TO HIRE HOMOSEXUALS.
Those issues are covered by public access laws. This law has NOTHING TO DO WITH PUBLIC ACCESS LAWS.
Anyone can try to use any argument to try to get away with breaking the law. But that does not mean the courts will hear said argument. Your question is the equivalent of asking whether the first amendment can be used as a defense for breaking the law. It is a ridiculous question, formed as a false meme directed to ask the person answering the question whether or not he stopped beating his wife, or in this case stopped gay bashing. Yes or no does the first amendment allow you to discriminate against gays?
If it has nothing to do with public access laws, what does it have to do with?
Isn't it amazing that not one of the RWnuts on this forum can tell us ONE thing this bill does, materially in support of religious people,
once the anti-gay part is taken off the table.
How about repealing the law altogether? If it serves no purpose that anyone can identify (except the right to discriminate part)
what is the need for the bill?
Someone please tell us specifically what the need for the bill is.
Give us a hypothetical situation. A hypothetical legal case.
...and quit saying you've already done that...