Skylar
Diamond Member
- Jul 5, 2014
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1. From the Law Review you linked, section I A. The Rule : "The doctrine, although subject to many exceptions, allows minors to disaffirm or "void" a contract that they entered as a minor."
In other words, if a minor signs a contract, the Infancy Doctrine allows them to void that contract. It does not mean that a contract signed by two adults is voided by the children of those signatories. The children of a married couple have not entered into that marriage contract.
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Dude there are 35 pages of quotes from that link in post #4.
And not one of them applies the Infancy Doctrine to marriage. Nor could. As children aren't parties to the marriage of their parents.
You're ignoring your own sources and citing your imagination as the law. It isn't.
You make shit up. Its irrelevant to the law. Nothing happens.
You cherry picked one sentence to represent the comprehensive whole of that document? You're hilarious. Yes, that's true about children actually signing a contract with adults. But there are IMPLIED contracts as well, not just expressed ones. And unless you or one of your buddies here is going to lie and say that implied contracts aren't equally weighty or enforceable as expressed ones, you have to admit that implied = contract.
There's no implied contract. A child is no party of the marriage of their parents. Not an 'express party', not an 'implied party', not a party of any kind.
You've made all that up, citing only yourself. And your imagination is pseudo-legal nonsense, signifying nothing.
You make shit up. Its irrelevant to the law. Nothing happens.