High_Gravity
Belligerent Drunk
Shariah will be here in the States also.
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8-Year-Old Iranian Child Caught Stealing Bread [Analysis]According to a Peyke Iran spokesperson who corrected the record last November in a note posted on Little Green Footballs, the young boy whose arm was run over was not being punished for a crime. He was part of a "Maareke giry" or street magic act and allegedly performed the stunt for money (note the gentleman speaking into a microphone in image #1). The seventh and eighth pictures in the series, which appear to show the child shaken but otherwise unharmed after the ordeal, were omitted from the email flier but can still be viewed on Peykeiran.com (where all the images are attributed to photographer Siamak Yari).
Shariah will be here in the States also.
And will only be used by contracting parties, IE Muslims
In 10 years, Shariah law will be part of the constitution, Islam will be taught in schools and no woman will be able to leave the house without a burka and a male relative.
100K that you are wrong.
Anti up?
I am exagarrating, but you cannot deny Islam is gaining a foothold in the States.
Shariah will be here in the States also.
And will only be used by contracting parties, IE Muslims
Shariah law has no business in this country, if Muslims want shariah law there are plenty of countries they can go to for that. If the Muslims get shariah law, what next? should we allow separate courts for Buddhists, Hindus, Taoists, Satanists and Voodoo also?
And will only be used by contracting parties, IE Muslims
Shariah law has no business in this country, if Muslims want shariah law there are plenty of countries they can go to for that. If the Muslims get shariah law, what next? should we allow separate courts for Buddhists, Hindus, Taoists, Satanists and Voodoo also?
It's funny, but I think you are missing the point. Actually what Oklahoma is doing is encouraging Muslims to create their own legal infrastructure. If laws are passed to prevent regular courts from dealing with situations that have Sharia law as a component, you are encouraging those people of creating their own separate court.
Shariah law has no business in this country, if Muslims want shariah law there are plenty of countries they can go to for that. If the Muslims get shariah law, what next? should we allow separate courts for Buddhists, Hindus, Taoists, Satanists and Voodoo also?
It's funny, but I think you are missing the point. Actually what Oklahoma is doing is encouraging Muslims to create their own legal infrastructure. If laws are passed to prevent regular courts from dealing with situations that have Sharia law as a component, you are encouraging those people of creating their own separate court.
Why do courts even have to take Shariah law into consideration? did I wake up in Pakistan this morning?
We must first determine whether the trial courts
findings of fact regarding the interpretation of Islamic law
were supported by substantial evidence. We hold that there is
substantial evidence in the record from the testimony of both
Mohammad and his expert witness to support the finding that the
Jordanian divorce was final, at least as to Mohammad, as of the-8-
date it was filed. Therefore, this finding is not clearly
erroneous.
It's funny, but I think you are missing the point. Actually what Oklahoma is doing is encouraging Muslims to create their own legal infrastructure. If laws are passed to prevent regular courts from dealing with situations that have Sharia law as a component, you are encouraging those people of creating their own separate court.
Why do courts even have to take Shariah law into consideration? did I wake up in Pakistan this morning?
Earlier, I pointed a link to a decision where a US state court looked at "Sharia law" in order to reach a decision.
Read the decision. http://162.114.92.72/COA/2004-CA-001531.pdf
This is the part you want to read (read before and after that):
We must first determine whether the trial courts
findings of fact regarding the interpretation of Islamic law
were supported by substantial evidence. We hold that there is
substantial evidence in the record from the testimony of both
Mohammad and his expert witness to support the finding that the
Jordanian divorce was final, at least as to Mohammad, as of the-8-
date it was filed. Therefore, this finding is not clearly
erroneous.
Tell me what you think the court should have done instead.
It seems to me that Shariah law was addressed in that particular case because the man was married in Jordan before he married an American here in the States, the courts had to determine whether his divorce in Jordan would actually be valid here in the States. To me thats different than allowing Sharia law to be used to determine an outcome of a divorce here in the States or any other dispute because alot of the stuff in Shariah goes against the law of the land, for instance in Shariah a man can have 4 wives, should we allow Muslim men in the States to keep 4 wives because it is according to Shariah?
It seems to me that Shariah law was addressed in that particular case because the man was married in Jordan before he married an American here in the States, the courts had to determine whether his divorce in Jordan would actually be valid here in the States. To me thats different than allowing Sharia law to be used to determine an outcome of a divorce here in the States or any other dispute because alot of the stuff in Shariah goes against the law of the land, for instance in Shariah a man can have 4 wives, should we allow Muslim men in the States to keep 4 wives because it is according to Shariah?
Well in this case the Sharia law decision affected the outcome of a US came in a direct way.
The problem is that for the hypothetical you are giving (a man wanting to marry 4 wives), the outcome would be that the situation would be against the public order here. So my guess is that courts wouldn't allow someone to keep 4 wives. On the other hand, I could imagine a case where a court is confronted with that situation. For example, imagine person X dies and we discovered he was married twice in another country and that those marriages were totally legit in those countries. What would the court do with respect to his estate if he dies without a will. I wouldn't be surprised if there are already cases about this.
But what would you do if the person dies here and has property here. Would you want the court to refuse to give anything to the second wife because you can't be married twice? It's an interesting question...
Thats what I'm saying, what if a Muslim marries two women in Saudi Arabia and brings both of them here, would the marriages be legit because it happened under Shariah Law? This is starting to get complicated and this just me and you discussing what if's on a message board!
It seems to me that Shariah law was addressed in that particular case because the man was married in Jordan before he married an American here in the States, the courts had to determine whether his divorce in Jordan would actually be valid here in the States. To me thats different than allowing Sharia law to be used to determine an outcome of a divorce here in the States or any other dispute because alot of the stuff in Shariah goes against the law of the land, for instance in Shariah a man can have 4 wives, should we allow Muslim men in the States to keep 4 wives because it is according to Shariah?
Well in this case the Sharia law decision affected the outcome of a US came in a direct way.
The problem is that for the hypothetical you are giving (a man wanting to marry 4 wives), the outcome would be that the situation would be against the public order here. So my guess is that courts wouldn't allow someone to keep 4 wives. On the other hand, I could imagine a case where a court is confronted with that situation. For example, imagine person X dies and we discovered he was married twice in another country and that those marriages were totally legit in those countries. What would the court do with respect to his estate if he dies without a will. I wouldn't be surprised if there are already cases about this.
But what would you do if the person dies here and has property here. Would you want the court to refuse to give anything to the second wife because you can't be married twice? It's an interesting question...
8-Year-Old Iranian Child Caught Stealing Bread [Analysis]According to a Peyke Iran spokesperson who corrected the record last November in a note posted on Little Green Footballs, the young boy whose arm was run over was not being punished for a crime. He was part of a "Maareke giry" or street magic act and allegedly performed the stunt for money (note the gentleman speaking into a microphone in image #1). The seventh and eighth pictures in the series, which appear to show the child shaken but otherwise unharmed after the ordeal, were omitted from the email flier but can still be viewed on Peykeiran.com (where all the images are attributed to photographer Siamak Yari).
"Sharia" is not a religion. It is a system of law that directly conflicts with the Bill of Rights in this country.
Please, please, give an example of a country that uses Sharia laws that you would want this country to follow. Where does Sharia law offer the freedom and liberty that are found here?
"Sharia" is not a religion. It is a system of law that directly conflicts with the Bill of Rights in this country.
Sharia is a system of law - WITHIN a religion, like Halakha. It can be interpreted different ways and some of those ways may not conflict with the Bill of Rights. If they do, well, in our country, the Bill of Rights overrules.
Please, please, give an example of a country that uses Sharia laws that you would want this country to follow. Where does Sharia law offer the freedom and liberty that are found here?
No. I'm not. Because that is a strawman argument. We aren't arguing that our country should follow Sharia - or any religious law and the possibility of that happening is so small as to be laughable. We are a constitutional government with a bill of rights. Religious law from a variety of religions, most notably Christianity is already in use, through voluntary agreements in our civil and family law system in much the same way muslims want to use Sharia to in mortgages, divorce, and similar types of situations. And in none of those cases do religious law overrule U.S. law. To do so would take a tremendous political movement to amend the constitution that, quite frankly I don't see happening when our Muslim population is only 2%, and quite westernized in outlook and values. If the dominant Christian fundamentalists haven't been able to bring about the changes they've been striving for how would you expect Muslims to?
Are you going to answer my question?
...
This is NOT a case that provides you with the "proof" that we must allow Sharia law to operate here in the U.S.......instead it is more proof that Immigration needs to do its job better in order to prevent stupid cases like this...