Catholicism does just that=The great apostasy- Jesus was clear( Matt 23:9)-Do not call any man on earth Father(Not speaking about dads, speaking of ones taking the lead in a religion) Yet the Pope elevates himself into Gods position by being called Holy Father. He fathered 0 spiritual things. God fathered all of them. No branch off her fixed much, they twisted more by using her translating.
Agan..........God does not use prophets under the New Testament Covenant of Jesus Christ. God speaks through His only begotten Son...Jesus Christ, who commissioned the Apostles of Christ to present ALL TRUTH through the Holy Spirit of Truth......whom the world cannot receive. That TRUTH that was the foundation of the kingdom of God (Matthew 16)....the church of Christ was delivered ONCE to the saints of the 1st century. Anyone that claims to be a modern day prophet is proven false by the sword of the Spirit......the word of God.
His mission was to redeem all. That's what mainstream Christianity teaches. He did that. You are confusing salvation with redemption. They are two different things.
Jesus was a Conservative Jew as described in detail in the Holy Scriptures. He was born a Jew, Lived as a Jew, Died as a Jew......living His entire life void of any sin as defined by the Law and the Prophets. The New Testament Covenant did not go into effect until after the death of Jesus Christ. When Jesus declared, "It is finished", He gave up the ghost/spirit. What was finished? The Law and the Prophets, Jesus came to fulfill the requirements of the law, not to destroy it. When ALL was finished as prophesied in the Law concerning the coming of the Messiah, when Jesus had completed His mission on earth.........to fulfill the Law and the Prophets, the kingdom of God/church of Christ was established to usher in the LAST DAYS of mankind.
The Old Testament predicted there would be a changing of the Law, that would be based upon Grace and Sacrifices of Love......a change from the law written on stone, that the Jews always were found guilty of breaking (Jer. 31:31-34) .What? Are you attempting to declare that the same Holy Spirit that is recorded in the N.T. did not exist in the Old Testament? God the Father did not move upon the waters Genesis 1. "THE SPIRIT OF GOD (what? Is God's spirit not Holy?) MOVED UPON THE WATER. The scriptures point out there is more than 1 personality acting as God......God declared, "........the man has become as ONE OF US......" -- Genesis 3:22
Actually Jesus told the Israelite religious leaders off( Matt 23) He assured them the religion was cut off-23:38, unless they did verse 39, they haven't yet thus remain cut off. Thus Jesus or his followers did not stick to that religion, a new one began. As all can see Jesus speaks to 7 churches in Revelation, not to synagogues. But that Greek word actually translates congregations not church. But here speaks of the new religion-Acts 24:5.Jesus was a Conservative Jew as described in detail in the Holy Scriptures. He was born a Jew, Lived as a Jew, Died as a Jew......living His entire life void of any sin as defined by the Law and the Prophets. The New Testament Covenant did not go into effect until after the death of Jesus Christ. When Jesus declared, "It is finished", He gave up the ghost/spirit. What was finished? The Law and the Prophets, Jesus came to fulfill the requirements of the law, not to destroy it. When ALL was finished as prophesied in the Law concerning the coming of the Messiah, when Jesus had completed His mission on earth.........to fulfill the Law and the Prophets, the kingdom of God/church of Christ was established to usher in the LAST DAYS of mankind.
Its just a "quinky dink" that the Old Testament confirms the message presented in the New Testament? Did the Romans also corrupt the Old Testament?
The New Testament Law did not come into effect until after Jesus' death on the cross (Col. 2:14, Eph. 2:15). God always required that the establishment a LAW be done with the shedding of blood (Hebrews 9:15-18). The Old Law was established with the shedding of Oxen Blood (Ex. 24:7-8)
Jesus was a Jew..........He was preaching to Jews with His sermon on the mount, there was no New Covenant in existence at that time.......thus, when Jesus taught the Jews how to pray He began with, "Thy KINGDOM COME............" -- Matthew 6:10
Jesus clearly stated that He came to fulfill the Law and the Prophets.........in order to fulfill THE LAW, He was bound by the same Doctrinal Precepts as any other Jew. He lived under the Law and did not sin (Matthew 5:17-20, Hebrews 4:15)
What? Are you attempting to declare that the same Holy Spirit that is recorded in the N.T. did not exist in the Old Testament? God the Father did not move upon the waters Genesis 1. "THE SPIRIT OF GOD (what? Is God's spirit not Holy?) MOVED UPON THE WATER. The scriptures point out there is more than 1 personality acting as God......God declared, "........the man has become as ONE OF US......" -- Genesis 3:22
"My Spirit shall not always strive with man....(Genesis 6:3). ".........I have filled him with the Spirit of God......" -- Ex. 31:2. "........and the Spirit of God came upon Him." -- Numbers 24:2
These are but a few of the passages in the Old Testament that present the same Spirit of God acting in the same manner as He acted in N.T. passages..such as acts 2
Revelation is a book of "symbolism" (Rev. 1:1)............the 7 churches addressed by Jesus through an angel to John are symbolic in nature. 7 is simply a number that represents completeness/perfection/all. The book of revelation was addressed to ALL THE CHURCHES OF CHRIST known to exist in the 1st century. How do we know this? The scriptures document the fact that there were more than 7 churches is Asia........aka., ASIA MINOR at the time of John's epistle. The book of revelation is dated between 61 AD and 96 AD.
Why would anyone trust a cult? A house divided( hundreds of trinity based religions) will not stand.Why GUESS at the symbolic when you can use the Holy Scriptures to interpret themselves through comparing the symbolic to the literal?
Why would any one trust a cult that has a documented history of presenting FALSE interpretations, pretending they are agents of God? Your cult is documented predicting....falsely, things to come. At least 8 times in history. But your cult is expert at interpreting SYMBOLIC TEXT? Your excuse for the false prophecies?.......they were not false.......just errors
The New Testament proves there were literally more than 7 churches is Asia not mentioned in John's revelation. Revelation 2 and 3 list the names.........none of the following churhes that existed in Asia at the time of John's revelation are found in revelation 2 or 3. Colosse (Col. 1:2) Hierapolios (Col. 4:3) Troas (Acts 20:5) Miletus (Acts 20:17)
Revelation 1:4 says the epistle was addressed to the 7 churches in ASIA......today that region is known as ASIA MINOR. Chapters 2 and 3 list the names of the churches/congregations of Christ's church in Asia. As stated we can know......LITERALLY, when reading the Holy Scriptures, there are more than 7 churches in that region. Conclusion? Was Jesus lying to John? Or telling the truth through symbolism, knowing that only those who "Study to make themselves approved of God -- 2 Tim. 2:15" can interpret the symbloism by comparing the symbolic to the literal that already existed in the Holy Scriptures?
We know from the Hebrew history as recorded in the Old Testament that 7 represents PERFECTION. The number 7 is used 54 times in the book of revelation, revealing the nature of the number to be representative or symbolic and not to be taken as a literal calculation. An example of this symbolism exists in the Old Testament accounting of The Song of Solomon (4:17). Solomon used 7 to point out the 7 attributes of his new wife.
