Quantum Windbag
Gold Member
- May 9, 2010
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As I explained earlier, you cannot really say that the free market did not prevent discrimination before the CRA because there wasn't a free market before then. the laws prohibited businesses from integrating even if they wanted to. I can easily argue that the fact that they had to write those laws is an indication that the free market could have dealt with the problem.
Something to think about there.
I'd never thought of it in that light. To me, it has always seemed to be that the people made those decisions. It was what they wanted not what the law said.
I actually find it hard to think of the South that I know from my growing up years would have accepted desegregation if it was not forced upon them. I must say, that thought is going to take some real thinking on, because I find it completely contradictory to what I have always "known" about the south.
Maybe where I'm struggling here is in which laws? Are we talking about state laws or federal law, because I can see where state laws in the South might have been written in such a manner as to require segregation, but then those laws are written by the people in the community and then you would in fact have the people making those laws so is there a difference?
Immie
Don't get me wrong, it would not have happened overnight. I still know people in the south who support segregation, but none of them are not business owners, they can't afford that type of attitude.
As for which laws, the south was dominated by Jim Crow laws, but they extended to the north, and were even part of the federal government. The military was segregated until 1948. After Truman signed that executive order everything else was inevitable.
Jim Crow laws - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia