Wrong again.
It clearly contextualizes that right as being invented because we needed well-regulated militias.
Here are two things it also does NOT say:
1) Those who may possibly participate in the future have the right to bear arms
2) Those who may participate in a militia in the future, but who are not in one now, do NOT have the right to bear arms
It neither grants or denies the right to bear arms to people not currently in a militia. Which allowed out nascent government to go around and confiscate a LOT of guns. Seems like you keep forgetting that little fact of history.
So it is not clear. For the purposes of instituting rights and forming code of law, we have a bbody we rely on 100% to interpret these unclear statements, using context of British Commonlaw, other existing parts of code of law, other documents from the time, etc. Which gave the SCOTUS plenty of room to mangle what was likely the original intent of the amendment and to take it places it was never meant to go.
But if anyone has a better system, I am all ears.