danielpalos
Diamond Member
- Banned
- #201
The First Sergeant told me not to pay attention to you.there is no point arguing with him he is brain dead.
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The First Sergeant told me not to pay attention to you.there is no point arguing with him he is brain dead.
A well regulated Militia, being necessary to the security of a free State, the right of the people to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed.
To provide for organizing, arming, and disciplining, the Militia, and for governing such Part of them as may be employed in the Service of the United States, reserving to the States respectively, the Appointment of the Officers, and the Authority of training the Militia according to the discipline prescribed by Congress;
A well regulated Militia, being necessary to the security of a free State, the right of the people to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed.What need does a militia member have, for a, "right to keep and bear arms"?
Citing clause 16 powers, which were exercised in the various Militia Acts to organize, arm, and discipline the organized militia, shows that everything an enrolled militia member does is under obligation of law -- NOT ANY RIGHT -- with legal penalties for refusing to muster when called or otherwise not complying.
No aspect of militia service is ever associated with any "right"; there was/is no free will or discretionary aspect afforded to the citizen when enrolled in militia service.
well regulated militia have literal recourse to our Second Amendment when keeping and bearing Arms for the security needs of their State or the Union.
The unorganized militia does not enjoy that "exemption" and must be in strict subordination to the civil authority.
Our Civil War is proof. The North had to win because Only well regulated militias of the United States may not be Infringed when keeping and bearing Arms for their State or the Union; regardless of All of the other ones.Can you point to any example in law when a militia member claimed any protections under the 2nd Amendment? I'll try to ask again, what "right" does the 2nd protect for a militia member?
The government is only authorized to "organize, arm and discipline the organized militia" when it's called to federal service.This is obviously saying the people as a whole ARE the unorganized militia that need to keep well versed in firearms.
The organized militia can then draw on this constantly firearm familiar pool when needed.
Sure the federal government is authorized to organize, arm, and discipline the organized Militia when needed.
But that can not happen if the people as a whole are not in possession of firearms, so they are familiar.
And clearly only part of the militia are ever called up.
Your quote says that.
{... for governing such Part of them as may be employed in the Service of the United States ...}
Our Civil War is proof. The North had to win because Only well regulated militias of the United States may not be Infringed when keeping and bearing Arms for their State or the Union; regardless of All of the other ones.
Your position is irrelevant since the unorganized militia, as Individuals of the People, are subject to the police power of their State or the Union.
For example: Subject only to the police power, the right of the individual citizen to keep and bear arms shall not be infringed. (Illinois State Constitution)
They actually have no choice but to put it down because it sets a precedent that will creep over into other civil rights. There's no way to stop it from happening if they leave it standing.I think SCOTUS will throw out the New York law.
At the least they'll tell New York to try again and not to be so extreme next time.
Well regulated militia have literal recourse to our Second Amendment. Our civil war is one example.What need does a militia member have, for a, "right to keep and bear arms"?
You have a right to due process not a shoot out with police.Who claims the 2nd Amendment ever protected private citizens from police operations? The 2nd Amendment had no effect on state powers, including police powers.
In other words, Police have no civil duty to question or disarm Individual, criminals of the People who may be keeping and bearing Arms?The Chicago handgun ban . . .
Well regulated militia have literal recourse to our Second Amendment. Our civil war is one example.
Not at all. It is merely Your understanding that is deficient. How many people were charged with murder during our civil war? And, the North had to win Because Only Well Regulated Militias of the United States may not be Infringed when keeping and bearing Arms for the security needs of their State or the Union.So, you only have your goofy opinion, divorced from any association with the Constitution or law and you are compelled to repeat it like a robot, without any reference to what was said to you.
And again, the very existence of the official militias of states was extinguished, stomped out because they were terrorizing people and committing murder.Not at all. It is merely Your understanding that is deficient. How many people were charged with murder during our civil war? And, the North had to win Because Only Well Regulated Militias of the United States may not be Infringed when keeping and bearing Arms for the security needs of their State or the Union.
A well regulated Militia, being necessary to the security of a free State, the right of the people to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed.And again, the very existence of the official militias of states was extinguished, stomped out because they were terrorizing people and committing murder.
No state and certainly no militia member ever claimed this imaginary, "literal recourse to our Second Amendment". Those militias enforcing the laws of their state and bearing arms while undertaking those enforcement actions, were the cause of the dissolution of those militias, not their protection.
Saying there is a "literal recourse" means there is a "literal" written framework in law that can be pointed to; a "recourse", means there is an established legal process to remedy a claim in law.
If such a condition existed, surely you can quote and cite one example of this "literal recourse" being claimed and recognized for any member of the "well regulated militia".
Does this "literal recourse" only exist in your mind as a theoretical concept, employed only to prop-up your goofy personal opinion of the 2nd Amendment?
For me to recognize your theory as having any validity as a point in law, you have to cite it in law and how it has been enforced in law.
Problem for you is you can't show any such condition ever existed for the 2nd Amendment. You are just slinging your incoherent imagination; your repetition seems more intended to reinforce it in your own mind than trying to convince anyone else . . . If you were trying to convince anyone else, especially someone with some knowledge in the topic, you would give it more effort than just mindlessly repeating the same thing, over and over.
Is that really all you got?
.
I'm not at all sure where we agree and disagree here.Exactly.
Without the right to bear arms, then you end up with no rights at all.