Really, aren't there three things going on with the "gay marriage issue."
1. Discrimination by the state (or federal) govt in the govt not being able to articulate any reason for denying a gay marriage the same legal recognition as given a hetero marriage. It seems to me that this issue is being pretty well settled by state laws, and federal, going the way of the dinosaurs.
2. Private discrimination (or denial of services) because the Christian or Muslim provider believes that providing the service makes them a party the marriage ceremony. Whether the service non-provider is in legal peril depends on a couple of things. Most importantly, is there a state statute saying GLBT folks are a protected class, and the denial of a service is illegal. If there is, the non-provider has a problem. GLBT folks have not been recognized as a suspect class for federal laws.
If there is no legal prohibition on not providing a service (or participating in a ceremony), then it seems to me we get into a more uncertain area. I think I have seemed unclear because as an old Southern white male, I see a religious justification in segregation and the opposition to serving blacks equally. The segregationists were protecting a society where a white protestant patriarchy was king. Not that I think that is morally right, but my belief as to the morally "rightfulness" of something is irrelevant. If a person sincerely holds a moral belief, and he isn't breaking a law in acting on it, then maybe I have no say in telling him what to do. But, if the person not getting served can find a way to sue him, or engineers an economic boycott against him, as did the civil rights organizations during the 60s, maybe I have no say in telling them what to do, either.
3. Hopefully, we all agree that the religious protection laws were flat out wrong in trying to make it legal to hire and fire, or deny insurance, because a person is GLBT.
Once there's a final court judgment establishing a right (typically a Scotus judgment) the only power congress has left is to limit the Court's jurisdiction, but that leaves the judgment intact. If the scotus rules bans on gay marriage are unconstitutional, it's game over.
The bottom line is that Congress has to pass any legislation, big dumbass.
Your point seems to be that Obama would veto it. Unfortunately for your idiotic response is that it's a hypothetical. There is no actual bill in Congress.
Hey buster, you're the one that brought it up with this nonsense:
" Congress could repeal the 1964 act any time it wants to and the Court couldn't do a thing about it."
No, dumbass, Congress couldn't.
You're splitting hairs, dumbass.
It's not splitting hairs to point out the idiocy of your statement:
" Congress could repeal the 1964 act any time it wants to and the Court couldn't do a thing about it."
It's just - pointing out the idiocy of your statement
Please explain how the Court could prevent Congress from passing laws. This ought to be good.