Yes, the enshrinement of the RIGHT OF THE PEOPLE in the SECOND Amendment to their Constitution clearly "means" that such "right" is CONDITIONED upon it being in "service" of the country AND that such "right" be "under control of the government."
Because, evidently,
no right is a right unless the government can control it.
Damn, chickenshit, you are pathetically clueless. Sallow might be able to form some kind of argument along such lines. Doubtful, but at least he has the capacity for logic. YOU, by contrast, mindlessly intone shit he says when you couldn't piece together two coherent sentences if your life depended on it.
Tell me, chickenshit, you have a right to free speech, too. Or ,so says the First Amendment (the one JUST before the Second Amendment if you get lost). Should that "right" also be limited by government control?
If not, then what is the basis for CONDITIONING some rights but not others?