postman
Diamond Member
- Feb 23, 2017
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Actually the courts would say that they don't have jurisdiction in that case. The constitution clearly contains the remedy under law.Nope. The SCOTUS can overturn if it violates the Constitution.
Let’s say the Secretary of State for Mass is one of these antisemites so prevalent among the left these days, and she decides “No Jews” on the ballot. You think that would hold?
Amendment 14 section 2
But when the right to vote at any election ... is denied to any of the male inhabitants of such state, being twenty-one years of age, and citizens of the United States, or in any way abridged, except for participation in rebellion, or other crime, the basis of representation therein shall be reduced in the proportion which the number of such male citizens shall bear to the whole number of male citizens twenty-one years of age in such state.