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So a logic question as to the way the law functions.
Claim: The SCOTUS issued a stay for the Utah case based on those with standing filing a request for such a stay. That stay is now a stay on SSCM in all states (or at least those states where it was not otherwise already legal).
Reality: When the SCOTUS issues a stay, it is for that case. Now, lower courts can take that stay as guidance and then issue their own stay pending appeal or not stay their ruling and the loser would then have to file a stay request with the SCOTUS to receive their own stay. That is in fact what happened with the 4th Circuit Courts ruling. They provided a temporary stay to allow time to appeal, that stay was due to expire tomorrow at 08:00. The SCOTUS though issued a stay in the Virginia case putting future SSCM's on hold. The stay is self expiring, if the respondants were to choose not to appeal (not likely) then the stay would automatically expire (IIRC on 9/23/14 if no appeal is filed).
LOGIC: If the Utah stay was applicable to all 50 states, then why did Virginia have to get their own stay? Under the logic of the OP, no such stay would be required as the Utah stay was already issue. So in fact the SCOTUS itself proved the OP wrong as they issued a stay for Virginia upon request by those with standing. If the OP's version were correct, not stay would have been needed and the SCOTUS wouldn't have issued one.
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