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- #121
So it doesn't. Glad you can at least admit that.How does selling a cake to a gay couple harm anyone?I'm not playing dumb. I don't expect you to understand the subtleties of the debate we're having about inalienable rights, but Pratchettfan claimed that the post in question proved I was wrong. How exactly? Do you know?
I don't know what you are talking about.
We were talking about whether discrimination is an inalienable right. Pratchettfan seemed to be saying that the fact that judges have ruled in favor of anti-discrimination laws proved that they disagreed (with my assertion that it is a right). But that makes no sense. Just because something is a right protected by the constitution, doesn't mean government can't limit it - especially when the exercise of that right harms others.
The classic "shouting fire in a crowded theater" example proves my point. The Court has ruled that laws limiting our freedom of speech can still pass Constitutional muster. That doesn't mean they have nullifed the First Amendment, and it doesn't mean we don't still have a right to free speech. It just means we can't do it in a way that harms others.
In supporting civil rights legislation, judges haven't nullifed our right to free association - even if we are committing 'commerce'. They've ruled that refusing to serve someone in a public accommodation can be prohibited by the state, even though it's an infringement of freedom of association, if it's done as an expression of certain types of bigotry that the state doesn't approve of. It's that ruling that I think is questionable, and sets up a really bad precedent.
How does not?
Neither selling a cake, or refusing to sell a cake, can sanely be construed as 'harming someone'. I'm not really sure what you're getting at here.