I see.
I posted 2 collections of our conversation. Post #99 and Post #100
you: "I'm saying the free market itself can't influence or corrupt government because the free market has nothing to do with the government."
me: "A 'genuine' free market? I see. The economy is influenced by the type of market, so does not the economy and the market influence government? Is this invisible hand so invisible it cannot be perceived of or grasped in the material world? Is it god?"
you: "How about this. You explain to me how you think a free market would influence the government, and we'll go from there."
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So let me get this straight, you've made the statements "Government is inherently corrupt. The free market, however, doesn't have any part of that as the free market has nothing to do with government." without backing them up, and then you demand I answer questions when you cannot answer the questions raised by your statements?
Okay, but I set conditions: "Unless you are willing to acknowledge that for a few decades the developed and developing world's economies were moving towards a free market with free market reforms, we get nowhere." because as I say, with you it will always come down to "we never had purely a free market" so the conversation goes nowhere.
What about it? Was I right? Are you dooming conversations to going nowhere because you refuse to acknowledge common understandings? note: added material
Actually, I have backed them up. I explained why a free market cannot intervene in the government by explaining what a free market is. That you don't accept this explanation is not a reflection on me. Now if you want to continue to erroneously define a heavily regulated mixed economy as a free market because of some "deregulation" then that's your mistake. It's not "dooming conversations to go nowhere" because you can't accept an answer.
Actually, you have not backed up your statements listed in the above post and the posts preceding it. You have offered explanations that do not address the questions raised.
Questions: So you say free market forces have no effect on government? Is corruption about influence? Do people and forces not influence government and thereby corrupt government? Are you saying outside influences do not corrupt government?
Answers: Governments intervene in markets, markets don't intervene in governments. I'm saying the free market itself can't influence or corrupt government because the free market has nothing to do with the government. I'm saying that if you have a genuine free market, then the free market has nothing to do with government.
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As I replied: With you it will always come down to "we never had purely a free market" so the conversation goes nowhere.
Unless you are willing to acknowledge that for a few decades the developed and developing world's economies were moving towards a free market with free market reforms, we get nowhere. The deregulation and more, of the last 30 years or so are what is commonly understood by the terms 'free market' or 'free market reforms'
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You doom conversations to going nowhere because you refuse to acknowledge common understandings.