Coyote ;--) lets see if this paste from pages works.
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How can they not be "indiginous" when their history includes descent from indiginous peoples?
If a mixed pedigree is an automatic exclusion than you would also have to exclude many Jews who are the products of mixed descent during the diaspora.
If a distinct culture is a requirement - what distinct culture is common and unique to all Jews? Not religion - culture.
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It doesn’t, thats one of the problems with WIKI it fails utterly to use specific language, that error would have been corrected in a peer review but on WIKI its allowed to stand.
And yes, religion, language, customs all part of culture. The Judaic peoples have retained their uniqueness throughout the centuries. They are a truly unique culture.
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Unlike Nazareth - the Palestinians are stateless. That at the very least should be addressed. As to how much land should be "given away" - none. Because the Occupied Territories are not Israel's to give - in my opinion. Israel controls them, but ownership is far from clear. The insistence that a people must have a unique culture to be a people and have considered rights as Boston implies is weak. There are many nations who's people have indistinguishable cultures but no one questions their existance or implies they aren't a "real people" - only with the Palestinians. Why?
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The Nazareth ? give me a hint ;—))
The Arab Muslims you are referring to as palestinians are not stateless, they have 75% of the mandate area as the state of Jordan. This whole thing is really about just taking more land from israel.
The intent of the mandate is clear. EVERYTHING west of the Jordan River is available for the creation of a Jewish national homeland. Including Judea and Summaria.
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The Palestinians do not have a state. They are not Jordanian. They have never been Jordanian. They lived where they live for hundreds of years (with some immigration from other area). You would expel them from their homeland in order to give that land to another people.
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I disagree. For one - the only Jewish people who are truly indiginous imo, would be the Mizrahi. Those who left married out into other nationalities and their culture changed along with that.
I'm curious why you say "Muslims reject Jewish history, and convert Jewish myths and religious into their own. As in, "Abraham and Moses and David and Solomon were Muslims, not Jews" as if this is some unique way of destroying Jewish heritage. Judaism is the founding Abrahamic faith. When Christianity was invented it usurped much of the Jewish faith for it's own. When Islam was invented it did the same. This is common with religions - they are almost all built upon earlier faiths and traditions.
The Canaanites are part of the Palistinian heritage.
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The Judaic people originated in the Canaan valley area have remained a distinct people with a distinct culture. You can claim they have been absorbed into whatever culture you want but without any evidence to support your claim it remains nothing but a claim. DNA evidence clearly shows that the Judaic people have remained by and large unaffected by their time in foreign lands.
Although I would be the first to point out that DNA evidence can also show we are 99% chimps and I’m not about to support giving chimpanzees a homeland in israel either.
I think you are mistaken about who claimed Muslims reject Jewish history. I’m innocent on that one although I wouldn’t be surprised.
I would suggest that Christianity actually incorporated little of the Judaic faith and instead relies heavily on Hellenistic pagan beliefs more known to Paul the Myth Maker, as H McCobby might suggest.
Oh and palestinians are part of no heritage, they seem to be an invention of the 1950s era.
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Again, that is false - are you trying to insist that the only people living their prior to 1950 were Jews?
That's deceptive if not downright dishonest. Ottoman and Mandate census figures show a considerable non-Jewish population. In fact, the number of Jews were relatively small until Zionist immigration started. Whether you call them "Palestinians" or Martians - the people who lived in that region were a mixture of religions that had been there for some time. Your statement would have us believe that until recently there were only Jews there and that is demonstratably false unless "recent" means the last thousand years or so.
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Not at all, you are assuming once again that the people called palestinians previous to about 1950ish were Arab Muslims, they were not. You have to remember that the first time the term palestinian is applied to an Arab Muslim colonist is about 1950 with the invention of the PLO.
The term itself is irrelevant - the people now called Palestinians are the same people that were living there prior to 1950. This nothing more than rhetorical trickery to try and deny them any sort of validation.
The lack of Judaic people in Judea at various times in history is virtually entirely due to the various pogroms enacted against them.
While there were various other peoples from a variety of faiths remaining you’d be hard pressed to find any reference to palestinians other than of the Jewish faith. Most identified themselves with their country of origin or with being Southern Syrian IE one of the three Ottoman Syrian provinces. Gaza Acre or Lebanon, I think, I’d have to go look up the names, but i”m pretty sure I nailed it.
In a nutshell I don’t believe the Arab Muslim colonists referred to themselves as palestinians until about 1950 ish.
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Again - the name of the people might change but the people have always been there.
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They aren't First Nation tribes. To use YOUR terminology they are "European colonizers".
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The Judaic people returning to Judea from Europe make up about 35% of the overall population of Israel today. The term returning is far more accurate than the term colonizing.
According to the way you define "colonist" - they are colonizing.
The term returning implies the people came from this area in the first place. They did, their ancestral line can be traced back to a pre bronze age people in the Canaan valley area.
The term Colonist implies that a person is moving into new territory and displacing a native people. We know that the Arab Mulsim colonists came from the Arabian peninsula in two waves, one between the 7th and 9th centuries and another in the mid Zionist period. That fact isn’t really in dispute. All you are arguing is that there were some survivors of the various pogroms and their genetics are evident in the colonist populations.
Not at all. It wasn't all pograms in Palestine. When Christians became dominant - many Jews converted to Christianity, out of expediency, or for what ever reason. Likewise with the Muslim conquests. The mistake is trying to use religion as a way of defining a people when people change religions like politics: Spread of Islam, The - Oxford Islamic Studies Online
You can't even argue that worldwide, Jews are pure anymore - they intermarried with other people, and other people converted to their faith during the diaspora - like the Palestinians, they are mutts with their religion uniting them.
Big deal
A people is defined by its heritage, language, culture, belief systems, customs and uniqueness. None of which define the Arab Muslim colonists of the mandate area. But all of which define the Judaic peoples.
What singular unique culture encorporates all Jews?
Which brings us to the point.
Why do the Arab Muslim colonists deserve more than 75% of the mandate area when the indigenous people only get 25% ?
Cheers
That is debatable and, is being debated whole heartedly in another thread

