Now you're venturing into strawman territory. I said nothing about when a prosecutor "has to recuse" themselves. I said Starr was not impartial and pointed to him filing a friend of the court brief on behalf of the person suing Clinton.
Obviously you don't know regarding legal representation
Now you're venturing into strawman territory. I said nothing about when a prosecutor "has to recuse" themselves. I said Starr was not impartial and pointed to him filing a friend of the court brief on behalf of the person suing Clinton.
So I give you a clear cut example of a council's inability to show impartiality, and you come back with a phrase you found on a web page to which you can't explain nor go into specifics concerning the situation the term was actually making reference to. Does that sound about right? Why don't you reply with case you do know something about and have the ability to explain and make your argument beyond throwing a "phrase" you read somewhere. From here it doesn't look like you know Jack about the legality behind needing to show showing impartiality.
You DO know that if a prosecutor or a criminal investigator is in any way connected (be it a friend, family member, someone they worked closely with, etc) to those they are representing... or even a judge hearing the case has a personal tie with any of the attorney's representing the case... that they can't,
on legal footing, be connected with the outcome of that particular case.