1 judge or 24 judges, they should not be able to throw out the will of millions of people.
So if California had an initiative and passed a ban on private citizens owning firearms, then the federal courts should not step in and uphold the second amendment, I mean the California citizens voted on it.
Good question. Not a big gun nut, so I'm not emotionally invested in Gun ownership. I would also argue that the Second Amendment calls for a "well regulated" militia being a condition of the "right to bear Arms".
I should also point out the courts HAVE ruled that that states and municipalities have the right to regulate firearms ownership.
I'd call on the religious judge, sure. I don't think a heterosexual judge would have any skin in the game if he were otherwise impartial on the matter.
Well, that's the problem with the SCOTUS previous judicial activism in
Lawernce v. Texas and
Romer.. When you're ina hole, you stop digging.
But the thing was, that legality was ONLY based on a court ruling, not legistlation or a mandate by the people. It's a wrong covering another wrong.
Good enough for most people.
I have no idea what this is supposed to mean. Men and women are different? Ya, so what? When the government has put itself in a position where discrimination is being conducted and a citizen exercises their Constitutional right under the Grievance Clause of the 1st Amendment, then the government has a responsibility to provide compelling government interest to justify the continuation of the discrimination. If the government were to pass a law (and yes the people acting through an initiative process are action as a legislative branch of government) that blind people can't drive, if challenged it would be the government responsibility to make a case that blind people are endangering the public by operating multi-ton vehicles at high rates of speed on the public highways. On the other hand if the government passed a law that said females could not operate motor on public highways, then they would be responsible for making a case based on gender.
Not really comperable here. I know you are really trying.
What's the "compelling" reason to require separate bathrooms, which most businesses are REQUIRED to do? Or to exempt women from Selective Service? Or to treat a crime against a woman more seriously than that against a man? There isn't one. There is just a cultural reason to do so.
The basic premise of the Constitutionally guaranteed right to equal treatment under the law is that like situated individuals (or in this case couples) should be treated the same unless the government an provide such justification. Do date, I've not seen such a justification that would warrent different treatment for the following like situated couples:
Law abiding, tax paying, US citizen, infertile, consenting, non-related, adults in a different-sex couple and law abiding, tax paying, US citizen, infertile, consenting, non-related, adults in a same-sex couple.
But the states ALREADY set rules. Polygamy is illegal, and so are incestuous marriages. (Although states vary on when incest comes in. Some states, you CAN marry your first cousin. ICK!) The states also vary on what age you can actually consent to marriage. Which is kind of stupid, in some states, the marrying age is lower than the age of consent.
Now if the homosexuals want to argue that there are good reasons to change the law, they should do that- at the ballot box or in the state legislature.