Blues Man
Diamond Member
- Aug 28, 2016
- 35,513
- 14,905
- 1,530
the argument was that people realized slavery was wrong and then abolished it.So then you know that the Roman Empire never abolished slavery and that the end of slavery in the Roman Empire was not because the people there had some moral epiphany but rather for more mundane reasons.
The Romans expanded past their limits of effective governance and when the transition was made from expansion to defense of their borders from the growing number of enemies the influx of slaves and thus the slave trade dried up and it became more and more expensive to acquire slaves. That couple with a failing economy made it less expensive to hire cheap labor than to own slaves.
But you knew that right?
And the enslaved thought that involuntary servitude was good?! The enslavers did not use initial, overwhelming force to enslave them? The enslavers yearned to be the enslaved themselves because slavery was good? The enslavers were unaware of the threat, i.e., were not fearful of the consequences should they ever lose the upper hand?
They didn't need any moral epiphany to the know the truth. The enslavers understood the reality of their tyranny alright, and it all came crashing down.
That did not happen in Rome there was no abolishment of slavery for moral reasons.
In fact there were 3 major slave rebellions in Rome and even those did not motivate the people of Rome to end slavery.
And just because we as humans have changed our minds regarding slavery that in no way proves that some absolute standard of moral exists apart from the human mind
I see that once again you disregard the moral ramifications of my questions.
Slavery in Rome was not abolished for moral reasons.
And you cannot with any certainty say what anyone felt in Roman times