so basically the only form of gun control you would find acceptable would be felons being on good behavior and volentarily not buying guns, or just prosecuting them after they commit another crime of also possesing a gun when they should not.
Like everyoe else, felons can only be prosecuted for a crime -after- they commit the crime. Certainly, you agree.
This may meet your understanding of how the constitution should work, but basically it is an impossible set of requirements to implement.
Hardly. You find a felon with a gun, you arrest him and prosecute him.
Constitutionally, you cannot stop him from buying one, you can only punish him after he does, because to try to stop him before he buys is a form of proor restraint and violates the Constitution.
That's -exactly- what prior restraint mandates.
That's -exactly- what prior restraint mandates.
The problem here is that you think there -should- be a means to do this, and you apparently don't care about the constitutional restrctions that keep you from it. Prior restraint is constitutionally prohibited for a reason; you cannot simply discard that reason because it gets in the way of something you think you sould be able to do.
The flaw here is not the prior restraint argument, but the idea that it is OK to violate the constitution and restrict -everyones'- rights in order to try to stop -someone- from possibly committing a crime.
This line of logic is just as bad as those who think banning all guns will result in a utopia of bunnies and kittens living in peace and understanding.
Non-sequitur and irrelevant to the issue at hand.
If society was forced to live under the rules as you see them, there would be such a strong movement to amend or revoke the 2nd amendment that you would end up losing ALL rights to gun ownership.
This is wholly unsupportable - anyone and everyone agress with the principle of prior restraint as it applies to the freedom of speech; only those with an agenda or a deep lack of understanding can then possibly disagree with the -exact same principle- when applied to the right to arms.
Tell me:
What's so different between the two rights that Prior Restraint clearly applies to one but not the other?