The invention of Arab Palestine founded by invented Palestinians

MartyNYC

Gold Member
May 19, 2020
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“SOMETIMES brainwashing can become so uncontested and thoroughly convincing, what’s left after the spin cycle is nothing but falsehood.
Take the case of the “nation-laundering “of the Palestinian people. Here’s what decades of impeccable PR, global gullibility, and re-imagined anti-Semitism has enabled many to bizarrely believe:
There once was an Arab nation called Palestine, with the people in it known as Palestinians. After the Holocaust (which was either a hoax or exaggeration), the Western powers, duped by scheming Jews, were guilted into creating a Jewish state, fashioned solely from stolen Arab land.

Israel’s colonial imperialism required a massive population transfer of invaders and settlers. Jews from Europe, America, Canada, and South Africa—all white-skinned with absolutely no connection to the Holy Land—“occupied Palestine.” They formed an army, fortified by advanced weaponry supplied by the West, and then forcibly drove Palestinians from their homes, confiscated their property, and scattered them either to other Arab states or wretched refugee camps.

An otherwise peaceful people, the Palestinians who remained in the West Bank and Gaza have been relentlessly tormented by Israeli aggression, mistreatment, and, of course, illegal occupation, ever since.

Not a single sentence of that storyline is remotely true.

There never has been an Arab nation-state called Palestine. At the time of Israel’s founding, in 1948, the word Palestinian did not describe a distinct Arab people. In fact, the word itself was created by the ancient Romans and they were referring to Jews, not Arabs.

Jews have been living continuously in what is today Israel since the time of the Jewish patriarchs of the Old Testament and the creation of the first Jewish state – the Kingdom of Judea - which preceded the Ancient Greeks by several hundred years. After the fall of Judea, until Israel was created, the land was occupied by a host of other nations for well over 2,000 years. Ironically, the occupation of “Palestine” ended with the creation of Israel.”

. https://whiterosemagazine.com/phantom-fantasia-in-the-middle-east/
 
There is a famous piece by King Abdullah written in the late 40s called "As the Arabs See The Jews." It contains the usual laundry list of grievances, most of them bult upon half-truths and distortions, but not once does it make any reference to a "Palestinian" people.

You would think that if these "Palestinians" existed as a people, their fellow Arabs would have heard of them, dontcha think?
 
“SOMETIMES brainwashing can become so uncontested and thoroughly convincing, what’s left after the spin cycle is nothing but falsehood.
Take the case of the “nation-laundering “of the Palestinian people. Here’s what decades of impeccable PR, global gullibility, and re-imagined anti-Semitism has enabled many to bizarrely believe:
There once was an Arab nation called Palestine, with the people in it known as Palestinians. After the Holocaust (which was either a hoax or exaggeration), the Western powers, duped by scheming Jews, were guilted into creating a Jewish state, fashioned solely from stolen Arab land.

Israel’s colonial imperialism required a massive population transfer of invaders and settlers. Jews from Europe, America, Canada, and South Africa—all white-skinned with absolutely no connection to the Holy Land—“occupied Palestine.” They formed an army, fortified by advanced weaponry supplied by the West, and then forcibly drove Palestinians from their homes, confiscated their property, and scattered them either to other Arab states or wretched refugee camps.

An otherwise peaceful people, the Palestinians who remained in the West Bank and Gaza have been relentlessly tormented by Israeli aggression, mistreatment, and, of course, illegal occupation, ever since.

Not a single sentence of that storyline is remotely true.

There never has been an Arab nation-state called Palestine. At the time of Israel’s founding, in 1948, the word Palestinian did not describe a distinct Arab people. In fact, the word itself was created by the ancient Romans and they were referring to Jews, not Arabs.

Jews have been living continuously in what is today Israel since the time of the Jewish patriarchs of the Old Testament and the creation of the first Jewish state – the Kingdom of Judea - which preceded the Ancient Greeks by several hundred years. After the fall of Judea, until Israel was created, the land was occupied by a host of other nations for well over 2,000 years. Ironically, the occupation of “Palestine” ended with the creation of Israel.”

. https://whiterosemagazine.com/phantom-fantasia-in-the-middle-east/

Read the treaty of Lausanne, 1924.

They have officially been Palestinian since then.
 
Ben Gurion said Palestinians are decended from Jewish farmers who didn't leave after the destruction of the temple.

Palestinians are Bosnians, non-Arabs from Europe



BECEE105-43AF-458A-81D9-ECC621ACD0AA.jpeg
 
RE: The Issue of the Land.
SUBTOPIC: Consequence Avoidance
※→ surada, rylah, et al,
(OPENING)

Our friend "rylah" and the implication made has struck the bullseye
!

Read the treaty of Lausanne, 1924.
They have officially been Palestinian since then.

Did you read it, big mouth?
Quote where it says 'Palestine' even once.
(COMMENT)

"Tinmore" often uses Article 30 in the
Treaty of Lausanne as proof. But the interpretation "Tinmore draws is entirely wrong.
In Article 2 of the Treaty is the first if the Articles included in Part
I - Section I • "Territorial Clauses." On the other hand, Part I - Section II • Article 30 is NOT a territorial Clause. Article 30 is the first clause in Part I - Section II • "Nationality."
Article 3 of Part I - Section I • "Territorial Clauses" clearly deals with the undefined subsection of "Palestine." From a territorial standpoint it is included in the territory "From the Mediterranean to the frontier of Persia, the frontier of Turkey," which at that point in time was defined as "Syria."

It is clearly stated in the Treaty of Lausanne (no interpretation required) that this territory will be outlined and handled in accordance with Article 8 of the "FRANCO-BRITISH CONVENTION ON CERTAIN POINTS CONNECTED WITH THE MANDATES FOR SYRIA AND THE LEBANON, PALESTINE AND MESOPOTAMIA 20th October, 1921." This is the only place where "Palestine" is mentioned. And this Convention deals with the Territories and relates to the Mandates of the two principal Allied Powers (The French and British). None of the populations of Syria, Lebanon, "Palestine" or Mesopotamia were represented parties to the Convention. The populations became the "nationals of the State to which such territory is transferred."

(∑ Ω)

You may not like it. But in the early part of the 20th Century, that is just the way things were done.

At the current time, the only areas where the Arab Palestinians can claim sovereignty is in the Gaza Strip and Area "A" of the West Bank. It is the first time in a thousand years that Arab Palestinians could claim sovereignty.

1689954714089.png

Most Respectfully,
R
 
“SOMETIMES brainwashing can become so uncontested and thoroughly convincing, what’s left after the spin cycle is nothing but falsehood.
Take the case of the “nation-laundering “of the Palestinian people. Here’s what decades of impeccable PR, global gullibility, and re-imagined anti-Semitism has enabled many to bizarrely believe:
There once was an Arab nation called Palestine, with the people in it known as Palestinians. After the Holocaust (which was either a hoax or exaggeration), the Western powers, duped by scheming Jews, were guilted into creating a Jewish state, fashioned solely from stolen Arab land.

Israel’s colonial imperialism required a massive population transfer of invaders and settlers. Jews from Europe, America, Canada, and South Africa—all white-skinned with absolutely no connection to the Holy Land—“occupied Palestine.” They formed an army, fortified by advanced weaponry supplied by the West, and then forcibly drove Palestinians from their homes, confiscated their property, and scattered them either to other Arab states or wretched refugee camps.

An otherwise peaceful people, the Palestinians who remained in the West Bank and Gaza have been relentlessly tormented by Israeli aggression, mistreatment, and, of course, illegal occupation, ever since.

Not a single sentence of that storyline is remotely true.

There never has been an Arab nation-state called Palestine. At the time of Israel’s founding, in 1948, the word Palestinian did not describe a distinct Arab people. In fact, the word itself was created by the ancient Romans and they were referring to Jews, not Arabs.

Jews have been living continuously in what is today Israel since the time of the Jewish patriarchs of the Old Testament and the creation of the first Jewish state – the Kingdom of Judea - which preceded the Ancient Greeks by several hundred years. After the fall of Judea, until Israel was created, the land was occupied by a host of other nations for well over 2,000 years. Ironically, the occupation of “Palestine” ended with the creation of Israel.”

. https://whiterosemagazine.com/phantom-fantasia-in-the-middle-east/

You idiot. Sargon 2 settled four Arab tribes in Samaria during the Babylonian exile.
 
RE: The Issue of the Land.
SUBTOPIC: Consequence Avoidance
※→ surada, rylah, et al,
(OPENING)

Our friend "rylah" and the implication made has struck the bullseye
!


(COMMENT)

"Tinmore" often uses Article 30 in the
Treaty of Lausanne as proof. But the interpretation "Tinmore draws is entirely wrong.
In Article 2 of the Treaty is the first if the Articles included in Part
I - Section I • "Territorial Clauses." On the other hand, Part I - Section II • Article 30 is NOT a territorial Clause. Article 30 is the first clause in Part I - Section II • "Nationality."
Article 3 of Part I - Section I • "Territorial Clauses" clearly deals with the undefined subsection of "Palestine." From a territorial standpoint it is included in the territory "From the Mediterranean to the frontier of Persia, the frontier of Turkey," which at that point in time was defined as "Syria."

It is clearly stated in the Treaty of Lausanne (no interpretation required) that this territory will be outlined and handled in accordance with Article 8 of the "FRANCO-BRITISH CONVENTION ON CERTAIN POINTS CONNECTED WITH THE MANDATES FOR SYRIA AND THE LEBANON, PALESTINE AND MESOPOTAMIA 20th October, 1921." This is the only place where "Palestine" is mentioned. And this Convention deals with the Territories and relates to the Mandates of the two principal Allied Powers (The French and British). None of the populations of Syria, Lebanon, "Palestine" or Mesopotamia were represented parties to the Convention. The populations became the "nationals of the State to which such territory is transferred."

(∑ Ω)

You may not like it. But in the early part of the 20th Century, that is just the way things were done.

At the current time, the only areas where the Arab Palestinians can claim sovereignty is in the Gaza Strip and Area "A" of the West Bank. It is the first time in a thousand years that Arab Palestinians could claim sovereignty.

1689954714089.png

Most Respectfully,
R
The one thing I like to refer to is King Abdullah's letters to America written in the late 40s.



It contains the usual laundry list of Arab grievances, and refers to the commonality of Arabs, but not once mentions or even hints at a "Palestinian" people.

They simply had not been invented yet
 
The one thing I like to refer to is King Abdullah's letters to America written in the late 40s.



It contains the usual laundry list of Arab grievances, and refers to the commonality of Arabs, but not once mentions or even hints at a "Palestinian" people.

They simply had not been invented yet

They lived in Palestine .. you might say Iraqi Arabs or Kuwaiti Arabs. Palestinian Arabs lived in Palestine. Lots of Palestinians worked in Arabia in the 1950s.

Jews may have been called German Jews or Libyan Jews. You're dumb.

Have you read As an Arab sees the Jews?
 
“SOMETIMES brainwashing can become so uncontested and thoroughly convincing, what’s left after the spin cycle is nothing but falsehood.
Take the case of the “nation-laundering “of the Palestinian people. Here’s what decades of impeccable PR, global gullibility, and re-imagined anti-Semitism has enabled many to bizarrely believe:
There once was an Arab nation called Palestine, with the people in it known as Palestinians. After the Holocaust (which was either a hoax or exaggeration), the Western powers, duped by scheming Jews, were guilted into creating a Jewish state, fashioned solely from stolen Arab land.

Israel’s colonial imperialism required a massive population transfer of invaders and settlers. Jews from Europe, America, Canada, and South Africa—all white-skinned with absolutely no connection to the Holy Land—“occupied Palestine.” They formed an army, fortified by advanced weaponry supplied by the West, and then forcibly drove Palestinians from their homes, confiscated their property, and scattered them either to other Arab states or wretched refugee camps.

An otherwise peaceful people, the Palestinians who remained in the West Bank and Gaza have been relentlessly tormented by Israeli aggression, mistreatment, and, of course, illegal occupation, ever since.

Not a single sentence of that storyline is remotely true.

There never has been an Arab nation-state called Palestine. At the time of Israel’s founding, in 1948, the word Palestinian did not describe a distinct Arab people. In fact, the word itself was created by the ancient Romans and they were referring to Jews, not Arabs.

Jews have been living continuously in what is today Israel since the time of the Jewish patriarchs of the Old Testament and the creation of the first Jewish state – the Kingdom of Judea - which preceded the Ancient Greeks by several hundred years. After the fall of Judea, until Israel was created, the land was occupied by a host of other nations for well over 2,000 years. Ironically, the occupation of “Palestine” ended with the creation of Israel.”

. https://whiterosemagazine.com/phantom-fantasia-in-the-middle-east/

 
RE: The Issue of the Land.
SUBTOPIC: Consequence Avoidance
※→ surada, rylah, et al,
(OPENING)

Our friend "rylah" and the implication made has struck the bullseye
!


(COMMENT)

"Tinmore" often uses Article 30 in the
Treaty of Lausanne as proof. But the interpretation "Tinmore draws is entirely wrong.
In Article 2 of the Treaty is the first if the Articles included in Part
I - Section I • "Territorial Clauses." On the other hand, Part I - Section II • Article 30 is NOT a territorial Clause. Article 30 is the first clause in Part I - Section II • "Nationality."
Article 3 of Part I - Section I • "Territorial Clauses" clearly deals with the undefined subsection of "Palestine." From a territorial standpoint it is included in the territory "From the Mediterranean to the frontier of Persia, the frontier of Turkey," which at that point in time was defined as "Syria."

It is clearly stated in the Treaty of Lausanne (no interpretation required) that this territory will be outlined and handled in accordance with Article 8 of the "FRANCO-BRITISH CONVENTION ON CERTAIN POINTS CONNECTED WITH THE MANDATES FOR SYRIA AND THE LEBANON, PALESTINE AND MESOPOTAMIA 20th October, 1921." This is the only place where "Palestine" is mentioned. And this Convention deals with the Territories and relates to the Mandates of the two principal Allied Powers (The French and British). None of the populations of Syria, Lebanon, "Palestine" or Mesopotamia were represented parties to the Convention. The populations became the "nationals of the State to which such territory is transferred."

(∑ Ω)

You may not like it. But in the early part of the 20th Century, that is just the way things were done.

At the current time, the only areas where the Arab Palestinians can claim sovereignty is in the Gaza Strip and Area "A" of the West Bank. It is the first time in a thousand years that Arab Palestinians could claim sovereignty.

1689954714089.png

Most Respectfully,
R

They were just the majority for 2000 years.
 
RE: The Issue of the Land.
SUBTOPIC: What does it mean?
※→ surada, et al,
(OPENING)

Being a "majority" means nothing in an Islamic Regime. And remember, the central theme of organizations like the Islamic Revolutionary Movement (HAMAS) is to assemble "the whole community of Muslims bound together by ties of religion." HAMAS (and the associated Jihadist, Fedayeen Activist, Hostile Insurgents, Radicalized Islamic Followers, and Asymmetric Fighters) are of a mind holding in its core principle - that "Palestine is at the heart of the Arab and Islamic Ummah and enjoys a special status."

They were just the majority for 2000 years.
(COMMENT)

Name a single country in Middle East and North Africa (MENA), that ranks higher in Human Development than Israel.

Name a single country in MENA that has contributed more Nobel Laureates to the world than has Israel.


Knowledge Flourishes 2.jpg

Most Respectfully,
R
 

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