Shekels

[Shusha]

They are a people native to a certain geographical area and there heritage is that of all the groups that have come through the area. They may not have had a national identity or desire for self determination prior to Israel but that doesn’t mean they did not exhist or that they did prior to Islam.

Their heritage is NOT that of all the groups that come through the area. Their culture is very specifically an imported Arab culture (despite small regional differences in Arabic and in embroidery patterns). Their heritage was specifically overrun and eliminated through the invasion and colonization of Islam.

Which is FINE. It is what it is. You can't unbreak them eggs. And they have since developed both a national identity and a desire (if not the ability) for self-determination.

Why do you try so hard to insist that Arab Palestinian culture and heritage is pre-islam, when it is so clearly not?

 

[ForeverYoung436]

The Palestinians, however have, collectively.

Without using the circular argument of "the people who lived there", define "Palestinians". And describe their "heritage".

People are defined in part geography, so you can’t completely omit it.

In this case, there heritage is based in part on geography. They are a group of people, defined by a common heritage of place that have endured multiple waves of conquest. They speak a distinct dialect of Arabic influenced by Aramaic, they have their own distinctive embroidery, and certain distinctive dances that are thought to go back to a pre-Islamic era. They are a people native to a certain geographical area and there heritage is that of all the groups that have come through the area. They may not have had a national identity or desire for self determination prior to Israel but that doesn’t mean they did not exhist or that they did prior to Islam.

If you're talking about the "dabke" dance, which Tinmore claimed was uniquely Palestinian, a quick Google search revealed to me that it's also performed by the Lebanese, Syrians, Jordanians and Iraqis...in other words, their Arab brethren. No surprise there.

 

[Coyote]

They are a people native to a certain geographical area and there heritage is that of all the groups that have come through the area. They may not have had a national identity or desire for self determination prior to Israel but that doesn’t mean they did not exhist or that they did prior to Islam.

Their heritage is NOT that of all the groups that come through the area. Their culture is very specifically an imported Arab culture (despite small regional differences in Arabic and in embroidery patterns). Their heritage was specifically overrun and eliminated through the invasion and colonization of Islam.

Which is FINE. It is what it is. You can't unbreak them eggs. And they have since developed both a national identity and a desire (if not the ability) for self-determination.

Why do you try so hard to insist that Arab Palestinian culture and heritage is pre-islam, when it is so clearly not?

I am saying it is both. For example dialect differences include Aramaic, and according to some scholars there are other aspects that predate Islam (as in Lebanon as well). Yes, the culture is predominantly Islamic Arab, and that is used to label them foreign invaders and newcomers when they are anything but. That is the problem, you don’t seem to see how that is being used to deny them an identity.

 

[Coyote]

Excellent, the old "Everybody Knows" fallacy. "It's just common knowledge". You lose.

And you're mired in a cesspool of ethnocentricity if you think that "Arabs" must be speaking in English just because that's what you speak and

rylah is an Israeli and lives in the Middle East. He knows more about Arabs in the area and how they speak than you and I know.

Clearly he doesn't know how language learning works.

I spent considerable time among Arabs, which is where I learnt some Arabic, and while it's kind of a challenge to think of specific conversations involving the letter P, those conversations took place in either English or French, BOTH of which use the letter P, and there was never a time any of us got hung up on it. So his claim is, pun intended, perfidiously preposterous.

P is a plosive, virtually the same as the letter B but with more breath. It's not like it's even hard to do.

And btw I found a source for the ridiculous contention:

Israeli Legislator Argues With Straight Face That Palestine Can’t Exist Because There’s No P in Arabic

>> The remark came during a Knesset debate over a contentious proposal from opposition leader Isaac Herzog for Israel to unilaterally separate from the Palestinians in the absence of a two-state solution. Berko’s argument got an immediate response. “What? Did everyone hear this? Are you an idiot?” replied an MK from the opposition Meretz party. Arab lawmakers walked out in protest, reportedly muttering “P-P-P” under their breath.

The New York Times notes that the statement has been widely mocked in the Hebrew and Arabic media, with some joking that by her logic, there’s no pizza in America because English doesn’t have the Hebrew letter Tzadik, to make a tza sound. Jews might also be in trouble since there’s no J in Hebrew.

It might also blow Berko’s mind to learn that German, Egyptian, Chinese, and Japanese people, among many others, don’t actually refer to themselves by those names. <<
​

Long story short ---- he be trollin'.

While there is no ‘P’ sound, in Arabic, the word for “Palestine” in Arabic is “Falastin,” which also happens to be the similar pronunciation to its sister Semitic language - Hebrew.
​

Happens to be similar? What a ridiculous comment. Of course it is similar, because it's originally a Hebrew word and never was Arabic one.

And the word means "invaders", which is what the modern Palestinians are, ironically.

Shusha this an example of what I mean. A people who’s roots go back as long as Jews, who have never left the area are hardly invaders regardless of culture.

 

[Coyote]

Whence do you get this nonsense that "most Arabs can't pronounce (whatever)"?

What, did you just run out between posts with a tape recorder interviewing "all Arabs" and compile stats?
And when did you become the arbiter of "correct" Arabic pronunciation?

Just like there is no letter corresponding to the "kh" sound in the English alphabet, although there is a letter "khet" in Hebrew, in the same way there is no letter P in Arabic. This is why the Roman city in the West Bank called Neapolis became Nablus in Arabic. (It was originally called Shekhem by the Israelites.) Arabs don't call the land Palestine because they can't pronounce that name. I believe they call it Falistin. rylah is basically joking around and saying that the so-called Palestinians can't even pronounce the name of their own country. It would be like Jews calling our holiday Hanukkah instead of Chanukah because we can't pronounce the name of our very own festival.

Bullshit. My mother tongue is English but that doesn't somehow "prevent" me from pronouncing the kh sound of Arabic, the ü in German, the ñ in Spanish, the zh sound in French, or the nasals in Portuguese. It doesn't depend on having a letter in your native alphabet, nor is anyone limited to that alphabet.

Anyway my thrust was more at his sweeping generalization.

But I think rylah's point is deeper. "Palestine" isn't an Arabic name because there isn't even a letter P in their alphabet. It's a Roman name. The Romans forced the Jews out of Judea, and they renamed the country Palestine after the Jews' bitterest enemies--the Philistines. The Romans tried to erase Jewish history, and now the so-called Palestinians are trying to do the same thing today.

The Palestinians didn’t start out Arabic...their presence in the region preceded the Muslim conquest. I don’t understand why the argument matters other than to serve to erase a people.

Well, I don't believe the Palestinians are the same people that have lived there since Canaanite times, which is the popular myth these days. They were imported into the area from Arabia, Egypt and Syria.

You can believe what you like but historic evidence does not support that. Yes, there was the immigration of people of people into the region but the core of the Palestinians have been there prior to the Islamic conquest. When Christianity conquered them many were converted to Christianity. When Islam conquered them they were converted to Islam. They were not imported from elsewhere. That is like saying Jews were imported from Europe.

 

[Shusha]

rylah is an Israeli and lives in the Middle East. He knows more about Arabs in the area and how they speak than you and I know.

Clearly he doesn't know how language learning works.

I spent considerable time among Arabs, which is where I learnt some Arabic, and while it's kind of a challenge to think of specific conversations involving the letter P, those conversations took place in either English or French, BOTH of which use the letter P, and there was never a time any of us got hung up on it. So his claim is, pun intended, perfidiously preposterous.

P is a plosive, virtually the same as the letter B but with more breath. It's not like it's even hard to do.

And btw I found a source for the ridiculous contention:

Israeli Legislator Argues With Straight Face That Palestine Can’t Exist Because There’s No P in Arabic

>> The remark came during a Knesset debate over a contentious proposal from opposition leader Isaac Herzog for Israel to unilaterally separate from the Palestinians in the absence of a two-state solution. Berko’s argument got an immediate response. “What? Did everyone hear this? Are you an idiot?” replied an MK from the opposition Meretz party. Arab lawmakers walked out in protest, reportedly muttering “P-P-P” under their breath.

The New York Times notes that the statement has been widely mocked in the Hebrew and Arabic media, with some joking that by her logic, there’s no pizza in America because English doesn’t have the Hebrew letter Tzadik, to make a tza sound. Jews might also be in trouble since there’s no J in Hebrew.

It might also blow Berko’s mind to learn that German, Egyptian, Chinese, and Japanese people, among many others, don’t actually refer to themselves by those names. <<
​

Long story short ---- he be trollin'.

While there is no ‘P’ sound, in Arabic, the word for “Palestine” in Arabic is “Falastin,” which also happens to be the similar pronunciation to its sister Semitic language - Hebrew.
​

Happens to be similar? What a ridiculous comment. Of course it is similar, because it's originally a Hebrew word and never was Arabic one.

And the word means "invaders", which is what the modern Palestinians are, ironically.

Shusha this an example of what I mean. A people who’s roots go back as long as Jews, who have never left the area are hardly invaders regardless of culture.

Its literally, factually, what the word means.

 

[Shusha]

Yes, the culture is predominantly Islamic Arab, and that is used to label them foreign invaders and newcomers when they are anything but. That is the problem, you don’t seem to see how that is being used to deny them an identity.

Their culture is predominately Islamic Arab BECAUSE their identity is Islamic Arab. Its not denying their identity, its acknowledging their own self-identity.

NO ONE is arguing that they are not a mix of local peoples and invading colonizing Islamic Arabs. But their culture and their identity is Islamic Arab (with a shrinking minority of Christian Arab). That is the culture and identity they have adopted. They retain no pre-invasion culture. No pre-invasion culture is part of their identity.

Its FINE. They don't need to pretend to "be" Canaanite in order to have rights to self-determination.

 

[Coyote]

Clearly he doesn't know how language learning works.

I spent considerable time among Arabs, which is where I learnt some Arabic, and while it's kind of a challenge to think of specific conversations involving the letter P, those conversations took place in either English or French, BOTH of which use the letter P, and there was never a time any of us got hung up on it. So his claim is, pun intended, perfidiously preposterous.

P is a plosive, virtually the same as the letter B but with more breath. It's not like it's even hard to do.

And btw I found a source for the ridiculous contention:

Israeli Legislator Argues With Straight Face That Palestine Can’t Exist Because There’s No P in Arabic

>> The remark came during a Knesset debate over a contentious proposal from opposition leader Isaac Herzog for Israel to unilaterally separate from the Palestinians in the absence of a two-state solution. Berko’s argument got an immediate response. “What? Did everyone hear this? Are you an idiot?” replied an MK from the opposition Meretz party. Arab lawmakers walked out in protest, reportedly muttering “P-P-P” under their breath.

The New York Times notes that the statement has been widely mocked in the Hebrew and Arabic media, with some joking that by her logic, there’s no pizza in America because English doesn’t have the Hebrew letter Tzadik, to make a tza sound. Jews might also be in trouble since there’s no J in Hebrew.

It might also blow Berko’s mind to learn that German, Egyptian, Chinese, and Japanese people, among many others, don’t actually refer to themselves by those names. <<
​

Long story short ---- he be trollin'.

While there is no ‘P’ sound, in Arabic, the word for “Palestine” in Arabic is “Falastin,” which also happens to be the similar pronunciation to its sister Semitic language - Hebrew.
​

Happens to be similar? What a ridiculous comment. Of course it is similar, because it's originally a Hebrew word and never was Arabic one.

And the word means "invaders", which is what the modern Palestinians are, ironically.

Shusha this an example of what I mean. A people who’s roots go back as long as Jews, who have never left the area are hardly invaders regardless of culture.

Its literally, factually, what the word means.

Is it? Or is that a subtle way denigrating them? Of the pro-Israeli side subtly pushing a definition in order to promote a particular view of them? Perhaps to counter the opposing meme of Jews as invaders? IS it literal and factual?

Origin of "Palestine"
Though the definite origins of the word Palestine have been debated for years and are still not known for sure, the name is believed to be derived from the Egyptian and Hebrew word peleshet. Roughly translated to mean rolling or migratory, the term was used to describe the inhabitants of the land to the northeast of Egypt - the Philistines

Palestine - Wiktionary
From Latin Palaestīna (“Roman province of Palestine”), from Ancient Greek (Palaistínē, “Philistia and the surrounding region”), from Hebrew פְ(p'léshet, “Philistia, land of the Philistines”),[1][2] from the root (p-l-š, “migrate, invade”).[3] The term P-l-s-t or P-r-s-t, found in five Ancient Egyptian inscriptions (beginning with one at Medinet Habu from circa 1170 BCE and ending with Padiiset's Statue inscription from circa 900-850 BCE) as the name of a people near Egypt, is traditionally taken to be cognate.[4][5] Seven Assyrian inscriptions contain the word "Palas(h)tu" or "Pilistu", which is usually also taken to be cognate.[6][7]

When did we choose invader over migratory? And when? And why?

Why are we insisting on it to describe a people who’s core population who has lived there has lived there for thousands of years? (Which for the uninformed is also centuries).

 

[ForeverYoung436]

While there is no ‘P’ sound, in Arabic, the word for “Palestine” in Arabic is “Falastin,” which also happens to be the similar pronunciation to its sister Semitic language - Hebrew.
​

Happens to be similar? What a ridiculous comment. Of course it is similar, because it's originally a Hebrew word and never was Arabic one.

And the word means "invaders", which is what the modern Palestinians are, ironically.

Shusha this an example of what I mean. A people who’s roots go back as long as Jews, who have never left the area are hardly invaders regardless of culture.

Its literally, factually, what the word means.

Is it? Or is that a subtle way denigrating them? Of the pro-Israeli side subtly pushing a definition in order to promote a particular view of them? Perhaps to counter the opposing meme of Jews as invaders? IS it literal and factual?

Origin of "Palestine"
Though the definite origins of the word Palestine have been debated for years and are still not known for sure, the name is believed to be derived from the Egyptian and Hebrew word peleshet. Roughly translated to mean rolling or migratory, the term was used to describe the inhabitants of the land to the northeast of Egypt - the Philistines

Palestine - Wiktionary
From Latin Palaestīna (“Roman province of Palestine”), from Ancient Greek (Palaistínē, “Philistia and the surrounding region”), from Hebrew פְ(p'léshet, “Philistia, land of the Philistines”),[1][2] from the root (p-l-š, “migrate, invade”).[3] The term P-l-s-t or P-r-s-t, found in five Ancient Egyptian inscriptions (beginning with one at Medinet Habu from circa 1170 BCE and ending with Padiiset's Statue inscription from circa 900-850 BCE) as the name of a people near Egypt, is traditionally taken to be cognate.[4][5] Seven Assyrian inscriptions contain the word "Palas(h)tu" or "Pilistu", which is usually also taken to be cognate.[6][7]

When did we choose invader over migratory? And when? And why?

Why are we insisting on it to describe a people who’s core population who has lived there has lived there for thousands of years? (Which for the uninformed is also centuries).

rylah, a native Israeli Hebrew speaker, has said that's the meaning of the word in Hebrew.

 

[Coyote]

Happens to be similar? What a ridiculous comment. Of course it is similar, because it's originally a Hebrew word and never was Arabic one.

And the word means "invaders", which is what the modern Palestinians are, ironically.

Shusha this an example of what I mean. A people who’s roots go back as long as Jews, who have never left the area are hardly invaders regardless of culture.

Its literally, factually, what the word means.

Is it? Or is that a subtle way denigrating them? Of the pro-Israeli side subtly pushing a definition in order to promote a particular view of them? Perhaps to counter the opposing meme of Jews as invaders? IS it literal and factual?

Origin of "Palestine"
Though the definite origins of the word Palestine have been debated for years and are still not known for sure, the name is believed to be derived from the Egyptian and Hebrew word peleshet. Roughly translated to mean rolling or migratory, the term was used to describe the inhabitants of the land to the northeast of Egypt - the Philistines

Palestine - Wiktionary
From Latin Palaestīna (“Roman province of Palestine”), from Ancient Greek (Palaistínē, “Philistia and the surrounding region”), from Hebrew פְ(p'léshet, “Philistia, land of the Philistines”),[1][2] from the root (p-l-š, “migrate, invade”).[3] The term P-l-s-t or P-r-s-t, found in five Ancient Egyptian inscriptions (beginning with one at Medinet Habu from circa 1170 BCE and ending with Padiiset's Statue inscription from circa 900-850 BCE) as the name of a people near Egypt, is traditionally taken to be cognate.[4][5] Seven Assyrian inscriptions contain the word "Palas(h)tu" or "Pilistu", which is usually also taken to be cognate.[6][7]

When did we choose invader over migratory? And when? And why?

Why are we insisting on it to describe a people who’s core population who has lived there has lived there for thousands of years? (Which for the uninformed is also centuries).

rylah, a native Israeli Hebrew speaker, has said that's the meaning of the word in Hebrew.

Sure. It has more than one meaning. Why choose to emphasize invader, repeatedly and drop “migratory”?

He has his own bias.

 

[Coyote]

Yes, the culture is predominantly Islamic Arab, and that is used to label them foreign invaders and newcomers when they are anything but. That is the problem, you don’t seem to see how that is being used to deny them an identity.

Their culture is predominately Islamic Arab BECAUSE their identity is Islamic Arab. Its not denying their identity, its acknowledging their own self-identity.

NO ONE is arguing that they are not a mix of local peoples and invading colonizing Islamic Arabs. But their culture and their identity is Islamic Arab (with a shrinking minority of Christian Arab). That is the culture and identity they have adopted. They retain no pre-invasion culture. No pre-invasion culture is part of their identity.

Its FINE. They don't need to pretend to "be" Canaanite in order to have rights to self-determination.

Yes. They are, and you agreed with it.

Well, I don't believe the Palestinians are the same people that have lived there since Canaanite times, which is the popular myth these days. They were imported into the area from Arabia, Egypt and Syria.

 

[Shusha]

Yes, the culture is predominantly Islamic Arab, and that is used to label them foreign invaders and newcomers when they are anything but. That is the problem, you don’t seem to see how that is being used to deny them an identity.

Their culture is predominately Islamic Arab BECAUSE their identity is Islamic Arab. Its not denying their identity, its acknowledging their own self-identity.

NO ONE is arguing that they are not a mix of local peoples and invading colonizing Islamic Arabs. But their culture and their identity is Islamic Arab (with a shrinking minority of Christian Arab). That is the culture and identity they have adopted. They retain no pre-invasion culture. No pre-invasion culture is part of their identity.

Its FINE. They don't need to pretend to "be" Canaanite in order to have rights to self-determination.

Yes. They are, and you agreed with it.

Well, I don't believe the Palestinians are the same people that have lived there since Canaanite times, which is the popular myth these days. They were imported into the area from Arabia, Egypt and Syria.

They are not the same people. The Canaanite people no longer exist in any meaningful way. The Canaanite culture no longer exists. It grew into the Israelite (Jewish) culture. Which was overrun and nearly destroyed by successive invading and colonizing cultures.

The modern Arab people adopted the invading and colonizing culture. They are neither Israelites nor Canaanites. They are Arabs.

Which is FINE.

 

[Coyote]

Yes, the culture is predominantly Islamic Arab, and that is used to label them foreign invaders and newcomers when they are anything but. That is the problem, you don’t seem to see how that is being used to deny them an identity.

Their culture is predominately Islamic Arab BECAUSE their identity is Islamic Arab. Its not denying their identity, its acknowledging their own self-identity.

NO ONE is arguing that they are not a mix of local peoples and invading colonizing Islamic Arabs. But their culture and their identity is Islamic Arab (with a shrinking minority of Christian Arab). That is the culture and identity they have adopted. They retain no pre-invasion culture. No pre-invasion culture is part of their identity.

Its FINE. They don't need to pretend to "be" Canaanite in order to have rights to self-determination.

Yes. They are, and you agreed with it.

Well, I don't believe the Palestinians are the same people that have lived there since Canaanite times, which is the popular myth these days. They were imported into the area from Arabia, Egypt and Syria.

They are not the same people. The Canaanite people no longer exist in any meaningful way. The Canaanite culture no longer exists. It grew into the Israelite (Jewish) culture. Which was overrun and nearly destroyed by successive invading and colonizing cultures.

The modern Arab people adopted the invading and colonizing culture. They are neither Israelites nor Canaanites. They are Arabs.

Which is FINE.

I agree they are not Canaanites in that that culture is gone. But they are likely the descendants of those people, among many other peoples.

 

[Pogo]

Happens to be similar? What a ridiculous comment. Of course it is similar, because it's originally a Hebrew word and never was Arabic one.

And the word means "invaders", which is what the modern Palestinians are, ironically.

Shusha this an example of what I mean. A people who’s roots go back as long as Jews, who have never left the area are hardly invaders regardless of culture.

Its literally, factually, what the word means.

Is it? Or is that a subtle way denigrating them? Of the pro-Israeli side subtly pushing a definition in order to promote a particular view of them? Perhaps to counter the opposing meme of Jews as invaders? IS it literal and factual?

Origin of "Palestine"
Though the definite origins of the word Palestine have been debated for years and are still not known for sure, the name is believed to be derived from the Egyptian and Hebrew word peleshet. Roughly translated to mean rolling or migratory, the term was used to describe the inhabitants of the land to the northeast of Egypt - the Philistines

Palestine - Wiktionary
From Latin Palaestīna (“Roman province of Palestine”), from Ancient Greek (Palaistínē, “Philistia and the surrounding region”), from Hebrew פְ(p'léshet, “Philistia, land of the Philistines”),[1][2] from the root (p-l-š, “migrate, invade”).[3] The term P-l-s-t or P-r-s-t, found in five Ancient Egyptian inscriptions (beginning with one at Medinet Habu from circa 1170 BCE and ending with Padiiset's Statue inscription from circa 900-850 BCE) as the name of a people near Egypt, is traditionally taken to be cognate.[4][5] Seven Assyrian inscriptions contain the word "Palas(h)tu" or "Pilistu", which is usually also taken to be cognate.[6][7]

When did we choose invader over migratory? And when? And why?

Why are we insisting on it to describe a people who’s core population who has lived there has lived there for thousands of years? (Which for the uninformed is also centuries).

rylah, a native Israeli Hebrew speaker, has said that's the meaning of the word in Hebrew.

He also tried to sell that P pot from the comment that got laughed out of the Knesset so clearly he's not an unimpechable source.

 

[Pogo]

While there is no ‘P’ sound, in Arabic, the word for “Palestine” in Arabic is “Falastin,” which also happens to be the similar pronunciation to its sister Semitic language - Hebrew.
​

Happens to be similar? What a ridiculous comment. Of course it is similar, because it's originally a Hebrew word and never was Arabic one.

And the word means "invaders", which is what the modern Palestinians are, ironically.

Shusha this an example of what I mean. A people who’s roots go back as long as Jews, who have never left the area are hardly invaders regardless of culture.

Its literally, factually, what the word means.

Is it? Or is that a subtle way denigrating them? Of the pro-Israeli side subtly pushing a definition in order to promote a particular view of them? Perhaps to counter the opposing meme of Jews as invaders? IS it literal and factual?

Origin of "Palestine"
Though the definite origins of the word Palestine have been debated for years and are still not known for sure, the name is believed to be derived from the Egyptian and Hebrew word peleshet. Roughly translated to mean rolling or migratory, the term was used to describe the inhabitants of the land to the northeast of Egypt - the Philistines

Palestine - Wiktionary
From Latin Palaestīna (“Roman province of Palestine”), from Ancient Greek (Palaistínē, “Philistia and the surrounding region”), from Hebrew פְ(p'léshet, “Philistia, land of the Philistines”),[1][2] from the root (p-l-š, “migrate, invade”).[3] The term P-l-s-t or P-r-s-t, found in five Ancient Egyptian inscriptions (beginning with one at Medinet Habu from circa 1170 BCE and ending with Padiiset's Statue inscription from circa 900-850 BCE) as the name of a people near Egypt, is traditionally taken to be cognate.[4][5] Seven Assyrian inscriptions contain the word "Palas(h)tu" or "Pilistu", which is usually also taken to be cognate.[6][7]

When did we choose invader over migratory? And when? And why?

Why are we insisting on it to describe a people who’s core population who has lived there has lived there for thousands of years? (Which for the uninformed is also centuries).

Thank you. I was wondering how long that pseudodefinition was going to sit unchallenged.

 

[Coyote]

Happens to be similar? What a ridiculous comment. Of course it is similar, because it's originally a Hebrew word and never was Arabic one.

And the word means "invaders", which is what the modern Palestinians are, ironically.

Shusha this an example of what I mean. A people who’s roots go back as long as Jews, who have never left the area are hardly invaders regardless of culture.

Its literally, factually, what the word means.

Is it? Or is that a subtle way denigrating them? Of the pro-Israeli side subtly pushing a definition in order to promote a particular view of them? Perhaps to counter the opposing meme of Jews as invaders? IS it literal and factual?

Origin of "Palestine"
Though the definite origins of the word Palestine have been debated for years and are still not known for sure, the name is believed to be derived from the Egyptian and Hebrew word peleshet. Roughly translated to mean rolling or migratory, the term was used to describe the inhabitants of the land to the northeast of Egypt - the Philistines

Palestine - Wiktionary
From Latin Palaestīna (“Roman province of Palestine”), from Ancient Greek (Palaistínē, “Philistia and the surrounding region”), from Hebrew פְ(p'léshet, “Philistia, land of the Philistines”),[1][2] from the root (p-l-š, “migrate, invade”).[3] The term P-l-s-t or P-r-s-t, found in five Ancient Egyptian inscriptions (beginning with one at Medinet Habu from circa 1170 BCE and ending with Padiiset's Statue inscription from circa 900-850 BCE) as the name of a people near Egypt, is traditionally taken to be cognate.[4][5] Seven Assyrian inscriptions contain the word "Palas(h)tu" or "Pilistu", which is usually also taken to be cognate.[6][7]

When did we choose invader over migratory? And when? And why?

Why are we insisting on it to describe a people who’s core population who has lived there has lived there for thousands of years? (Which for the uninformed is also centuries).

Thank you. I was wondering how long that pseudodefinition was going to sit unchallenged.

It is just another subtle way to delegitimize. We see it from the pro-Pali side As well. The weaponizing of words through redefining are powerful weapons. If people hear it often enough, it gets accepted for truth. (Need I mention Trump)?

 

[toomuchtime_]

And the word means "invaders", which is what the modern Palestinians are, ironically.

Shusha this an example of what I mean. A people who’s roots go back as long as Jews, who have never left the area are hardly invaders regardless of culture.

Its literally, factually, what the word means.

Is it? Or is that a subtle way denigrating them? Of the pro-Israeli side subtly pushing a definition in order to promote a particular view of them? Perhaps to counter the opposing meme of Jews as invaders? IS it literal and factual?

Origin of "Palestine"
Though the definite origins of the word Palestine have been debated for years and are still not known for sure, the name is believed to be derived from the Egyptian and Hebrew word peleshet. Roughly translated to mean rolling or migratory, the term was used to describe the inhabitants of the land to the northeast of Egypt - the Philistines

Palestine - Wiktionary
From Latin Palaestīna (“Roman province of Palestine”), from Ancient Greek (Palaistínē, “Philistia and the surrounding region”), from Hebrew פְ(p'léshet, “Philistia, land of the Philistines”),[1][2] from the root (p-l-š, “migrate, invade”).[3] The term P-l-s-t or P-r-s-t, found in five Ancient Egyptian inscriptions (beginning with one at Medinet Habu from circa 1170 BCE and ending with Padiiset's Statue inscription from circa 900-850 BCE) as the name of a people near Egypt, is traditionally taken to be cognate.[4][5] Seven Assyrian inscriptions contain the word "Palas(h)tu" or "Pilistu", which is usually also taken to be cognate.[6][7]

When did we choose invader over migratory? And when? And why?

Why are we insisting on it to describe a people who’s core population who has lived there has lived there for thousands of years? (Which for the uninformed is also centuries).

Thank you. I was wondering how long that pseudodefinition was going to sit unchallenged.

It is just another subtle way to delegitimize. We see it from the pro-Pali side As well. The weaponizing of words through redefining are powerful weapons. If people hear it often enough, it gets accepted for truth. (Need I mention Trump)?

What a load of bullshit. You can't delegitimize something that was never legitimate. The so called Palestinians do not share a distinct common culture that distinguishes them from the other Arabs in the region. Before Israel became a sovereign state no one ever took these Arabs seriously as a "people", certainly not the Arab states. Only geographical markers distinguish them from the Arabs around them.

 

[Coyote]

Shusha this an example of what I mean. A people who’s roots go back as long as Jews, who have never left the area are hardly invaders regardless of culture.

Its literally, factually, what the word means.

Is it? Or is that a subtle way denigrating them? Of the pro-Israeli side subtly pushing a definition in order to promote a particular view of them? Perhaps to counter the opposing meme of Jews as invaders? IS it literal and factual?

Origin of "Palestine"
Though the definite origins of the word Palestine have been debated for years and are still not known for sure, the name is believed to be derived from the Egyptian and Hebrew word peleshet. Roughly translated to mean rolling or migratory, the term was used to describe the inhabitants of the land to the northeast of Egypt - the Philistines

Palestine - Wiktionary
From Latin Palaestīna (“Roman province of Palestine”), from Ancient Greek (Palaistínē, “Philistia and the surrounding region”), from Hebrew פְ(p'léshet, “Philistia, land of the Philistines”),[1][2] from the root (p-l-š, “migrate, invade”).[3] The term P-l-s-t or P-r-s-t, found in five Ancient Egyptian inscriptions (beginning with one at Medinet Habu from circa 1170 BCE and ending with Padiiset's Statue inscription from circa 900-850 BCE) as the name of a people near Egypt, is traditionally taken to be cognate.[4][5] Seven Assyrian inscriptions contain the word "Palas(h)tu" or "Pilistu", which is usually also taken to be cognate.[6][7]

When did we choose invader over migratory? And when? And why?

Why are we insisting on it to describe a people who’s core population who has lived there has lived there for thousands of years? (Which for the uninformed is also centuries).

Thank you. I was wondering how long that pseudodefinition was going to sit unchallenged.

It is just another subtle way to delegitimize. We see it from the pro-Pali side As well. The weaponizing of words through redefining are powerful weapons. If people hear it often enough, it gets accepted for truth. (Need I mention Trump)?

What a load of bullshit. You can't delegitimize something that was never legitimate. The so called Palestinians do not share a distinct common culture that distinguishes them from the other Arabs in the region. Before Israel became a sovereign state no one ever took these Arabs seriously as a "people", certainly not the Arab states. Only geographical markers distinguish them from the Arabs around them.

Case in point.

 

[toomuchtime_]

Its literally, factually, what the word means.

Is it? Or is that a subtle way denigrating them? Of the pro-Israeli side subtly pushing a definition in order to promote a particular view of them? Perhaps to counter the opposing meme of Jews as invaders? IS it literal and factual?

Origin of "Palestine"
Though the definite origins of the word Palestine have been debated for years and are still not known for sure, the name is believed to be derived from the Egyptian and Hebrew word peleshet. Roughly translated to mean rolling or migratory, the term was used to describe the inhabitants of the land to the northeast of Egypt - the Philistines

Palestine - Wiktionary
From Latin Palaestīna (“Roman province of Palestine”), from Ancient Greek (Palaistínē, “Philistia and the surrounding region”), from Hebrew פְ(p'léshet, “Philistia, land of the Philistines”),[1][2] from the root (p-l-š, “migrate, invade”).[3] The term P-l-s-t or P-r-s-t, found in five Ancient Egyptian inscriptions (beginning with one at Medinet Habu from circa 1170 BCE and ending with Padiiset's Statue inscription from circa 900-850 BCE) as the name of a people near Egypt, is traditionally taken to be cognate.[4][5] Seven Assyrian inscriptions contain the word "Palas(h)tu" or "Pilistu", which is usually also taken to be cognate.[6][7]

When did we choose invader over migratory? And when? And why?

Why are we insisting on it to describe a people who’s core population who has lived there has lived there for thousands of years? (Which for the uninformed is also centuries).

Thank you. I was wondering how long that pseudodefinition was going to sit unchallenged.

It is just another subtle way to delegitimize. We see it from the pro-Pali side As well. The weaponizing of words through redefining are powerful weapons. If people hear it often enough, it gets accepted for truth. (Need I mention Trump)?

What a load of bullshit. You can't delegitimize something that was never legitimate. The so called Palestinians do not share a distinct common culture that distinguishes them from the other Arabs in the region. Before Israel became a sovereign state no one ever took these Arabs seriously as a "people", certainly not the Arab states. Only geographical markers distinguish them from the Arabs around them.

Case in point.

Exactly, they have the same right to call themselves a people as the people who live in my apartment building and exactly the same right to a country of their own as I and my neighbors have. We appear to agree.

 

[rylah]

While there is no ‘P’ sound, in Arabic, the word for “Palestine” in Arabic is “Falastin,” which also happens to be the similar pronunciation to its sister Semitic language - Hebrew.
​

Happens to be similar? What a ridiculous comment. Of course it is similar, because it's originally a Hebrew word and never was Arabic one.

And the word means "invaders", which is what the modern Palestinians are, ironically.

Shusha this an example of what I mean. A people who’s roots go back as long as Jews, who have never left the area are hardly invaders regardless of culture.

Its literally, factually, what the word means.

Is it? Or is that a subtle way denigrating them? Of the pro-Israeli side subtly pushing a definition in order to promote a particular view of them? Perhaps to counter the opposing meme of Jews as invaders? IS it literal and factual?

Origin of "Palestine"
Though the definite origins of the word Palestine have been debated for years and are still not known for sure, the name is believed to be derived from the Egyptian and Hebrew word peleshet. Roughly translated to mean rolling or migratory, the term was used to describe the inhabitants of the land to the northeast of Egypt - the Philistines

Palestine - Wiktionary
From Latin Palaestīna (“Roman province of Palestine”), from Ancient Greek (Palaistínē, “Philistia and the surrounding region”), from Hebrew פְ(p'léshet, “Philistia, land of the Philistines”),[1][2] from the root (p-l-š, “migrate, invade”).[3] The term P-l-s-t or P-r-s-t, found in five Ancient Egyptian inscriptions (beginning with one at Medinet Habu from circa 1170 BCE and ending with Padiiset's Statue inscription from circa 900-850 BCE) as the name of a people near Egypt, is traditionally taken to be cognate.[4][5] Seven Assyrian inscriptions contain the word "Palas(h)tu" or "Pilistu", which is usually also taken to be cognate.[6][7]

When did we choose invader over migratory? And when? And why?

Why are we insisting on it to describe a people who’s core population who has lived there has lived there for thousands of years? (Which for the uninformed is also centuries).

Thank you for bringing up links to confirm the fact about the meaning of the word 'Palestinians' = INVADER.

There's no linguistic basis presented in your links for any other meaning,
No one insists on rewriting definitions to suit political agenda but you.

There's simply no way the term 'Palestinian' can be shown to mean anything different than 'invaders' in the language of the land.

If one needs to rely on American translations of Greek translations to reverse that having no basis in its origin language...because the term has no meaning in Arabic - that already shows the scope of the fallacy at the basis of the entire Arab myth of "Balestine".

People who in order to pronounce "Palestine" need to learn a foreign language to pronounce the name of the land they demand, are indeed invaders.

They're invader by their on admission, especially if they collectively identified specifically with that term in the language of the land,

Why do yo have to to travel so far as to an American interpretation of Greek translation to Hebrew a word to support your excuse to being triggered
by mere re-constitution of Shekels?

In fact, is there any indigenous language of the land in which the term 'Palestinian' doesn't mean INVADERS?