rightwinger
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- Aug 4, 2009
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A constitutional amendment defining marriage as between one man and one woman would take ratification of 2/3 of the states. Would 2/3 of the states ratify such an Amendment? If just the states that voted against gay marriage already voted for ratification it would pass. It would pass in states that haven't voted against gay marriage but had it imposed on them.
If it is true that the "vast majority" of people support same sex marriage, then there's no problem whatsoever with putting it up as a Constitutional Amendment.
With our current political alignment, I doubt if it is possible to get 2/3 agreement on any amendment
One by one, states are allowing gay marriage. Only the bible belt states will maintain their prohibition
Unless the courts step in