Nazi History And Their Endless Blunders

Ariernachweis:
Ahnenpass_003_anonym.jpg


... while for example a Brit, French, Italian, Czech or Pole ... must be considered Aryan.

If you don't know: Czechs and Poles are Slaws. The Nazis for example increased the number of Germans in Poland statistically by giving Poles the German citizenship.
Maybe you need to start to learn as to how to read German - nowhere does it state Slavic people - it refers to Races that are deemed to be foreign, especially those of ....... it is just a selection of some not all races.

Laut Hitler verlor die Weimarer Republik den Wettbewerb um Land und Bevölkerung an die „unterlegenen“ Rassen der Slawen und „Asiaten“. In diesem Wettbewerb hätte die „jüdische Rasse“ ihr traditionelles sozialistisches Werkzeug – den sowjetischen Kommunismus – weiter verfeinert. Damit wollten sie, so Hitlers Auffassung, die ansonsten unfähigen Slawen mobilisieren und die Deutschen glauben machen, dass das künstliche Mittel des Klassenkonflikts den natürlichen Instinkt des Rassenkampfes aushebele.

Hitler stating; the "inferior races of the Slavic and Asians"......
That is the reason why non-Nazis mocked Hitler and his followers as to taking in Japan into the three axes powers. So Hitler and his gang came up with the term Indo-Germanic -to "explain" that the Japanese were not Asians but Indo-Germanics - the same ruse was applied towards e.g. Indians serving in the Wehrmacht and even in the SS.

Polish and Czechs are mentioned due to the simple issue that until 1918 these countries belong to Germany and Austria - therefore harboring German Aryans with foreign papers - since these identification papers were printed before Hitler attacked Poland and Czechia.

if you read onto the article I pasted you will also find the issue that infants born to Polish parents were checked upon Aryan features, before being taken away and handed over for adoption to German Aryan parents.

Anyway again, and also in your following "contributions" you did not give a reasonable reply towards my two questions
 
Last edited:
Maybe you need to start to learn as to how to read German ...

I am a German, idiot.

The Czechs and Poles - Slaws - had been an example in the "Ariernachweis" (Aryan certificate) who had been an Aryan. All this examples together mean that all Europeans (North-Europeans as well as mediterranian Europeans) and all Slaws had been "Aryans" - as absurde as all this nonsense definitions had been, because indeed never any German or Germanic in all history of mankind had been an Aryan. Aryans - if not only mystic people at all - are - in case they really had existed - ancestors of the Persians.

And by the way: Japanese not had been Aryans but had been allies - and the Chinese culture (Chinese are also not Aryans) had been always admired from Germans. Red Indians are not Aryans - but Germans traditionally love Red Indians and many other indigen people. And Arabs are not only not Aryans but also Semites - but anti-Semitism has also nothing to do with Arabs. Anti-Semitism - a scientific sounding nonsense - was and is exclusivelly only "hate on Jews".

But if you still think Nazis murdered innocent Slaws in masses together with Jews: Give me please the names of the concentration and extermination camps for Slaws. And do not forget to try to think about that you had been an ally of the extremist mass-murderer Stalin during world war 2 - who had murdered on his own in masses Russians and other Slaws.
 
Last edited:
... if you read onto the article I pasted you will also find the issue that infants born to Polish parents were checked upon Aryan features, before being taken away and handed over for adoption to German Aryan parents. ...

Much more easy was it to kill blue haired and blond eyed Polish parents and to give their orphans to SS families. The SS produced not enough children for Hitler.
 
the Nazis were led by insane men.....trying to figure out their motives is pointless....diseased minds follow no logic whatsoever
No, race only matters to two kinds of people, doctors and politicians

Doctors use race to determine possible hereditary problems, as where politicians use it to divide and conquer, something democrats continue to this very day. That is because politics is the art of dividing and conquering. They have no interest in unity.

The Jewish hatred in Europe had been raging for centuries, as Jews were targeted for persecution as they were kicked out of entire countries time after time after time. They were stolen from, put in ghettos, and rounded up in mass and murdered. Then came the Holocaust, which was nothing more than a climax of Jewish hate. For the Nazi regime, it was a money-making scheme as Jews were often wealthy, as they are today and the majority looked upon them with disdain. They just rounded up the Jews, took their gold and money, and sent them off to die, which was embraced with enthusiasm.

Hitler did view the Slavic race as inferior, which is why he did not put much worry into invading Russia, and he did not want to conquer England because they were of Aryian decent. So not finishing off England before attacking Russia is an obvious blunder, produced by his racist views.

But Hitler viewing Blacks, for example, as inferior came from those in science around the world because at that time it was a well held scientific view that they were inferior. So you could say that his racism was fueled by science, as Hitler placed more emphasis on science than he did religion. This is why he also used doctors to experiment with Jews before killing them. Darwin, for example, was an ardent racist as he put those racist views in his scientific works.

The scary part is, people continue down this road, only, it is white men who are viewed as "vermin" by political figures in the US. This crap never ends.
 
Among Hitler's inner circle Goebbels had a club foot and Goering was a big fat drag queen. How does that square with the alleged "super arien" race promoted by the Nazi regime?
 
Folks - this thread is meant to clarify onto the two questions:

Was Hitler's goal to simply eliminate all "not worth living" without even having a plan in the drawers? which according to history documentation did not exist before the Wannsee Conference, meeting of Nazi officials on January 20, 1942, at a time when Nazi-Germany's war progress had already come to a halt, if not already being in a retreat.
or
Was Hitler's "goal" to win a war (according to Nazi doctrine "forced by all those others upon the German Nation") - foremost against the Bolsheviks - that he hated so much, whilst expanding Germany's territory in order to provide future "Living Space" for the Germanic people?

If the latter was or should be the case - then why didn't the Nazi's finish the war first - via directing, concentrating all their available human and economic resources onto this objective?

Thanks
 
Last edited:
Could it be , that Hitler and his paladins simply overlooked the issue - that the occupation of other countries and their territory, would bring in millions of "unworthy lives" into the Reich?
 
Folks - this thread is meant to clarify onto the two questions:

Was Hitler's goal to simply eliminate all "not worth living" without even having a plan in the drawers? which according to history documentation did not exist before the Wannsee Conference, meeting of Nazi officials on January 20, 1942, at a time when Nazi-Germany's war progress had already come to a halt, if not already being in a retreat.
or
Was Hitler's "goal" to win a war (according to Nazi doctrine "forced by all those others upon the German Nation") - foremost against the Bolsheviks - that he hated so much, whilst expanding Germany's territory in order to provide future "Living Space" for the Germanic people?

If the latter was or should be the case - then why didn't the Nazi's finish the war first - via directing, concentrating all their available human and economic resources onto this objective?

Thanks
Does insanity have a plan? Besides, Hitler was a drug addict that insisted on micromanaging the war. His generals despised him.

The forces that drove the Nazi regime had a goal of human destruction, no matter what Hitler's drug induced insanity may have thought otherwise.

Hitler was just sad pawn in the fight against good and evil. There was nothing remotely even special about him.

I'm just thankful that Hitler had all of those flaws, because it gave humanity a fighting chance at life.

Conversely, today's despots, who are no better than Hitler, however, they have the added help of technology and AI to help drive home their genocidal insane plots, that helps overcome their personal shortcomings.

As a result, today the human race is closer to destroying itself than ever before.,
 
Does insanity have a plan? Besides, Hitler was a drug addict that insisted on micromanaging the war. His generals despised him.

The forces that drove the Nazi regime had a goal of human destruction, no matter what Hitler's drug induced insanity may have thought otherwise.

Hitler was just sad pawn in the fight against good and evil. There was nothing remotely even special about him.

I'm just thankful that Hitler had all of those flaws, because it gave humanity a fighting chance at life.

Conversely, today's despots, who are no better than Hitler, however, they have the added help of technology and AI to help drive home their genocidal insane plots, that helps overcome their personal shortcomings.

As a result, today the human race is closer to destroying itself than ever before.,
That is not the topic nor the question of this tread

The two questions/topis are:
(1) Was Hitler's goal to simply eliminate all "not worth living" without even having a plan in the drawers? which according to history documentation did not exist before the Wannsee Conference, meeting of Nazi officials on January 20, 1942, at a time when Nazi-Germany's war progress had already come to a halt, if not already being in a retreat.
or
(2) Was Hitler's "goal" to win a war (according to Nazi doctrine "forced by all those others upon the German Nation") - foremost against the Bolsheviks - that he hated so much, whilst expanding Germany's territory in order to provide future "Living Space" for the Germanic people?

If the latter was or should be the case - then why didn't the Nazi's finish the war first - via directing, concentrating all their available human and economic resources onto this objective?
 
Among Hitler's inner circle Goebbels had a club foot and Goering was a big fat drag queen. How does that square with the alleged "super arien" race promoted by the Nazi regime?
And even Hitler himself did not match the racial profiling promoted by the SS and Himmler - but that is not the topic of this thread.
 
That is not the topic nor the question of this tread

The two questions/topis are:
(1) Was Hitler's goal to simply eliminate all "not worth living" without even having a plan in the drawers? which according to history documentation did not exist before the Wannsee Conference, meeting of Nazi officials on January 20, 1942, at a time when Nazi-Germany's war progress had already come to a halt, if not already being in a retreat.
or
(2) Was Hitler's "goal" to win a war (according to Nazi doctrine "forced by all those others upon the German Nation") - foremost against the Bolsheviks - that he hated so much, whilst expanding Germany's territory in order to provide future "Living Space" for the Germanic people?

If the latter was or should be the case - then why didn't the Nazi's finish the war first - via directing, concentrating all their available human and economic resources onto this objective?
The liquidation, or extermination, of those not deemed worthy to live was an evolving plan that had roots in Jewish persecution centuries prior in Europe. Everything done to the Jewish people in Nazi Germany had been done previously over the centuries in Europe, thus, none of the Nazi methodologies were original in any way, except making the extermination of the Jews highly efficient and broader across countries at the same time. You are not going to find written evidence of this evolution because they knew it to be criminal, as they had to worry about being discovered and punished later on for it.

As for the approach to the war, again, Hitler ran the show but was ill equipped to do so on many levels. He had no military expertise, no government expertise, etc. About the only expertise he had was being a thug, which caused to him excel politically. Ultimately, Hitler's vision was world conquest as he viewed his Ayrian race to be unbeatable because they were a race of superior ability and destiny, much like the Manifest Destiny in the United States. So it was not necessary to throw all effort into a war that you were destined to win anyway.
 
I don't see a valid reason to term Hitler and his immediate power-circle to be classified as insane people, especially not before 1941.

The Nazi's were actually very successful in their plans - especially towards Germany itsself (which wouldn't have been possible for "insane" people to achieve) - and the downfall of France made Hitler more popular in Germany then he was ever before.

Hitler, the Nazi's and his immediate circle shared the "vision"/"goal" - in regards to exterminating all no worth living in order to establish a pure Aryan race.
This 'vision" is determined by others to be insane - but it wasn't to Hitler, his Nazi supporters nor the majority of Germans - who didn't even realize as to what the Nazi's were really up to and to what extend they would go.

From 1933 - 1938 the vast majority of Jews were physically untouched, also keep in mind that there were only around 500,000 Jews living at the time in Germany.- disliked yes, due to mostly endless state propaganda from 1933 onward. And the initial racial propaganda in regards to Jews - was accepted by the majority of Germans from 1938 onward.

The Majority of Germans had no objection towards communists/socialists/homosexuals - taken off the street and placed into "Prison Camps" quite the opposite actually. Only when the euthanasia concept came up, the majority of Germans - mostly due to their Christian beliefs and the Church opposing it, the Nazi's even stopped it for the time being.

The Germans in absolute majority were not aware about Hitlers intention towards the Slavic population of the Soviet-Union - hey Hitler and Stalin had even become brothers in arms. And for the Germans the Jew issue wasn't a predominant issue at all. - if they pack their belongings and leave - why not? - let the other countries take them.

The mass killings got started from September 1941 onward in Russia - predominantly towards Slavs (around 12million in total) - due to the progressing war around 4 million murdered Soviet POW's as such totaling around 16 million Slavs and around 4-5 million Jews in the Soviet-Union. The Jews in Poland were placed into ghettos and not mass murdered before 1942.

Sorry but your statement does not provide a reasonable explanation towards my questions. But I can acknowledge your statement as such.
Your question? It has been answered. Was Adolf
in sane? Nope---prominent psychiatrist, back in the
day determined him to be sane. As to his policy towards jews----he, simply, revived Canon law. They
could not LEGALLY just leave Germany
 
April 16, 1945. Gardelegen, Germany.
In Gardelegen, the SS drove 1,100 concentration camp prisoners being transported inland to Germany into a barn and set it on fire. The photo shows the entrance to the barn and the corpses of the prisoners who died while trying to escape. Only 12 prisoners survived.
Ft07x02XwAA9Suj
 

Forum List

Back
Top