- Dec 6, 2009
- 77,817
- 4,173
- 1,815
You have been reading those document through Israeli colored glasses.You wouldn't have links to that?P F Tinmore, et al,
Ah, yes --- here we are again, raise objections about matters of fact.
(COMMENT)The UN has no authority over land.
There is no record of any Arab Palestinian sovereignty (supreme power or authority) in the territory formerly under the Mandate of Palestine.
Quite right. I don't think that is what I said. When you twist the words around, you get a false answer.
UN CHARTER said:Article 75
The United Nations shall establish under its authority an international trusteeship system for the administration and supervision of such territories as may be placed thereunder by subsequent individual agreements. These territories are hereinafter referred to as trust territories.
Article 77
1. The trusteeship system shall apply to such territories in the following categories as may be placed thereunder by means of trusteeship agreements:
a. territories now held under mandate;
b. territories which may be detached from enemy states as a result of the Second World War; and
c. territories voluntarily placed under the system by states responsible for their administration.
(COMMENT)Yes it does. Just because illegal external interference prevents them from exercising that right does not negate that right.
It is often important to remember that the phrase "Palestinian land laws" refers to "ownership of land" under the Palestinian Authority (PA)(a real estate matter).
The Palestinian Land Laws[1] are Palestinian Authority (PA) laws that prohibit Palestinians from selling Palestinian territory lands to Jews.[2][3][4][5] These land laws were originally enacted during the Jordanian occupation of the West Bank (1948–1967),[3] and are deemed by the Palestinian Authority as being necessary to prevent further expansion of Israeli settlements in the Palestinian territories and to "halt the spread of moral, political and security corruption".
SOURCE: definition - palestinian land laws
Most Respectfully,
RThese land laws were originally enacted during the Jordanian occupation of the West Bank (1948–1967)
Don't you consistently say that was sovereign Jordanian territory? I have always said it was occupied Palestinian territory. That is why it is still occupied Palestinian territory.
Some say that the West Bank is not occupied. (Common Israeli narrative.)
Some say that the territory outside the resolution 181 border is occupied. (Common during the time of Israel's statehood bid.)
Some say that all of Palestine is occupied. (Common Palestinian narrative.)
Is there any way to resolve this confusion?
Yes look at the facts based on international laws and historical documentation. When you do this you find that no nation of palestine has ever existed and the arab muslims have no legal or moral right to the land destined as the Jewish national home.
Of course not.
Yes and unlike you I have posted them proving that in 1923 the legal sovereign land owners of the mandate of palestine granted 78% to the arab muslims called trans Jordan and 22% to the Jews called the Jewish national home. When trans Jordan was created the arab muslims demanded an amendment to the international laws giving them the land to the effect than no Jews would be allowed to live in Trans Jordan unless sanctioned by the rulers, and conversely that no arab muslims would be allowed to live in the Jewish national home unless allowed by the rulers. The links are the mandate of palestine and the minutes of the LoN annual meetings. Now be a good boy and read them to see just how brainless you are presenting yourself.
BY THE WAY WE ARE ALL STILL WAITING FOR YOUR LINKS TO THE NATION OF PALESTINE ExISTING SOMETIME IN 1923 ?
They don't say what you think.