NightFox
Wildling
Men do have reproductive rights, they can choose whether or not to reproduce (either through abstinence or by using birth control), in other words they have all the rights necessary to control the use of their biological reproductive plumbing as they see fit, just like women do.Itās not flawed unless the women was forced to carry to term, which she isnāt...because abortion so... Women have reproductive rights, but men donāt.So the sexes are not equal and men can and should be considered victims for not having the same reproductive rights as women.
Of course they're not equal, Men don't have ovaries and a womb and thus aren't obliged to carry a fetus to term.
Once the child is born then the father is ethically and legally obligated to provide for the child because the child exists and either the parents of said child are on the hook to care for it, they get someone else to voluntarily take the responsibility (e.g. adoption) or the rest of society is and the rest of society had no say whatsoever in the conception and birth of the child.
Your premise is flawed unless of course you want to advocate for the rights of the male in determining whether or not an abortion or adoption takes place, i.e. using the judiciary to obtain a forced abortion or adoption decree...
Your premise is flawed because as I said, lacking ovaries and womb Men aren't obliged to carry a fetus to term and thus aren't biologically affected by the choice of whether or not to do so.
Where in your estimation do rights originate?Since when was it ok to distribute things like rights selectively? I thought that was a bad thing.