Skylar
Diamond Member
- Jul 5, 2014
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Cuz we all know that entering into a contract for illegal purposes (incest is illegal in all fifty states) is, in itself illegal.
OK, good point. So follow the logic here:
1. If it's true that children cannot be involved in a contract with adults that harms them (illegal: see Infancy Doctrine The Gay Marriage vs Children's Rights Impending Legal-Collision Looms Closer), and,
That's not the Infancy Doctrine. The 'Infancy Doctrine' is entertainment law about child actors and the employment contracts that the child themselves enter into. Children aren't married to their parents, killing your entire argument.
There's no 'constitutional crisis'. Just your typical pseudo-legal nonsense and obvious confusion about basic legal concepts.
2. Children are implicitly are involved in marriage which anticipates their arrival as sharers (divorce handling their rights to the contract mother/father separately from the adult's whims or wishes) and
Nope. No marriage is predicated on children or the ability to have them. Says who? Says the USSC.
3. People cannot enter into a contract for illegal purposes, and
There's nothing illegal about same sex marriage. Says who? Says the USSC that has found the right to marry extends to same sex couples as well.
A right is not a crime.
4. Gay marriage (contract) harms children by psychologically depriving them of either a mother or father for life, then
Nope. The courts have found that denying same sex couples harms their children. Thus, by your own logic.....banning same sex marriage harms children and is thus illegal.
You literally have to ignore yourself to hold your position.
5. Gay marriage contracts are illegal and it is illegal to enter into them since they harm children and deprive the state and the children in that state of the benefits they pay in order to secure both necessary mother and necessary father to the children anticipated/implicitly involved.
Nope.
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