rylah
Gold Member
- Jun 10, 2015
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No. That’s not what I claimed. You claimed God gave man an evil inclination. I claimed God gave man an inclination to good but that man has a choice in doing good or not.I am not going to argue with you.Yes and no. It’s way to deep for you to understand.I’ve already posted 3 links where rabbi’s have concluded otherwise.Want me to keep going, rylah ?
You can keep going,
but you won't find where Adam ever denied he ate from that Tree.
I've already explained this, blame IS ALREADY confirmation of wrong deed.
If you go get sued in court of law for murder, and start blaming someone for that,
in the middle of questioning, that will be used as a proof for your committing the crime.
Very simple... and now you start the usual weasel dance.
Their sin was not disobeying God. Their sin was denying accountability.
So they didn't disobey G-d?
And if denying accountability was the sin, what was it they were accountable for?
But the moral of the story is that the original sin was denying accountability for disobeying God.
In one post you claim they didn't disobey G-d,
then in the next you claim they're accountable for disobeying Him.
There's nothing deep here, merely your cognitive dissonance on display.
I am not going to debate with you.
The original sin was denying accountability for disobeying God. If we fix that everything else takes care of itself.
And yet, you've claimed man is only inclined to do good.
How does the inclination to disobey G-d fit within that equation?
You're left with only two options - define disobedience to G-d as good, which you did,
or admit that man is not only inclined to do good, and there's an evil inclination which man is supposed to oppose as a prerequisite for -freedom of choice and retribution for choosing good.
Of course,
otherwise man was a robotic being,
which is what the OP has claimed before.
But again, so if man is only inclined to do good,
how can man choose, if there isn't inclination not to do good?
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