Do NOT Discriminate Against Straight Men

[Mr. P]

PC APPEASER!

A Realist, is more like it. :tng:

 

[musicman]

See that is what I mean. It is pedophilia, and by definition a "homosexual act", but that does not make the perpetrator homosexual.

I don't know how in the world not. You can't divorce the actor from the act. How thin do we have to slice the definition, "homosexual"? The rapist doesn't lose the designation, "homosexual" because his victim is a child. He simply becomes a homosexual pedophile.

 

[rtwngAvngr]

See that is what I mean. It is pedophilia, and by definition a "homosexual act", but that does not make the perpetrator homosexual.

Of course it does.

 

[definition]

Of course there's a clear distinction. That doesn't mean the terms are mutually exclusive, though. A man who rapes a boy is a homosexual pedophile. That's the awful truth all these apologists are trying to hide amid all the parsing and verbiage.

How intentionally nescient are you going to be? A fixated pedophile has no adult sexual oreintation. The fact that he molests a girl doesn't make him a heterosexual; the fact that he molests a boy doesn't make him a homoosexual. Even in adult-adult relations the mere fact that one had a homosexual sexual experience does not, in and of itself, classify one as a homosexual.

Again, psychologists make distinctions between "regressed pedophiles" and "fixated pedophiles" for a very specific reason: the regressed pedophile DOES have an adult sexual oreintation --- he is attracted to adults. These studies show that virtually all regressed pedophiles are heterosexuals. Fixated pedophiles have NO adult attraction. Therefore, since he is an adult, he can't be classified as a "heterosexual," "bisexual" or "homosexual." It seems odd to me to classify as a "heterosexual" an ADULT male who has no attraction to women. Yes, a girl is of the opposite sex of a full grown man, but if a full grown man has an exclusive attraction to little girls, he has no ADULT heterosexual orientation.

But for the sake of argument let's say that clinicians decided to break-up all fixated pedophiles into three categories, "heterosexual pedophiles," "bisexual pedophiles" and "homosexual pedophiles." You would probably find that most fixated pedophiles would fall into the "bisexual pedophile" category because it is typical of fixated pedophiles to be attracted to prepubertal children regardless of gender. But let's presume, for the sake of argument, that after dividing fixated pedophiles into these three categories that research showed there was an unusual abundance of "homosexual pedophiles." This still would say absolutely NOTHING of the adult Gay male population, because adult Gay men, like adult straight men, are attracted primarily to adults --- and these men would not be attracted to adults. The classification of a fixated pedophile as Gay, straight or bi is simply contumacious to psychological canon on the subject.

 

[definition]

The rapist doesn't lose the designation, "homosexual" because his victim is a child. He simply becomes a homosexual pedophile.

But the pedophile isn't a homosexual in the first place. He doesn't have an adult sexual orientation so he can't be classified as homosexual, heterosexual or bisexual.

 

[definition]

I see a clear distinction between “homosexuality” and “pedophilia”, I do not understand why you guys can’t.

Thanks! I thought I was the only rational one here. This board seems to be a freeper zone.

 

[Mr. P]

I don't know how in the world not. You can't divorce the actor from the act. How thin do we have to slice the definition, "homosexual"? The rapist doesn't lose the designation, "homosexual" because his victim is a child. He simply becomes a homosexual pedophile.

Apparently very thin. A pedophile is not always victimizing the same sex, therefore they can not be labeled “Homosexual”.

It is true a rapist does not lose the designation of rapist for an act of rape.
A pedophile does not lose the designation of pedophile for the act either, but
to attempt to add the designation of “Homosexual” on what clearly is an illegal act with clear definition is disingenuous, purely agenda driven. IMO.

 

[Mr. P]

Thanks! I thought I was the only rational one here. This board seems to be a freeper zone.

No, lots of rational people here, but we have a very strong Anti-gay Anti-abortion crowd, all religous based. Even those on this thread are rational on other subjects.

 

[rtwngAvngr]

No, lots of rational people here, but we have a very strong Anti-gay Anti-abortion crowd, all religous based. Even those on this thread are rational on other subjects.

What's irrational is the belief that homosexual pedophilia is not homosexual.

 

[Mr. P]

What's irrational is the belief that homosexual pedophilia is not homosexual.

I agree with that to a degree. What I don't agree with is that, ALL or most, pedophiles are "homosexual".

 

[rtwngAvngr]

I agree with that. What I don't agree with is that, ALL or most, pedophiles are "homosexual".

No one's saying saying that. Musicman is saying that homosexuals are responsible for an amount of pedophilia that's disproportionate to their numbers in general society.

 

[MtnBiker]

Statistics show that 60 percent of heterosexual men commit adultery

from the link;

How many people have affairs? That's hard to say because not everybody will answer honestly. But sex therapist Peggy Vaughan, author of "The Monogamy Myth," conservatively estimates that about 60 percent of married men and 40 percent of married women will have an affair at some time during their marriage. Maggie Scarf, author of "Intimate Partners," basically agrees.

Is 60 percent a statistic or just assumptions from some book selling authors?

 

[definition]

What's irrational is the belief that homosexual pedophilia is not homosexual.

The psychologicy associated with adult homosexuality and any form of pedophilllia are so distinct as to make them nearly antitheses of one another. A pedophile who molests a little boy has as much in common with an adult oriented homosexual as a pedophile who molests little girls has in common with an adult oriented heterosexual. The fact that people on your side refuse to see the clear distinctions between those with attractions to adults and those with attractions to children has me completely and utterly flummoxed. Pedophillia is a completely separate psychosexual manifestation from either adult heterosexuality, homosexuality or bisexuality and can't be classified as any of them.

 

[CrimsonWhite]

It would be an act of "homosexual" pedophillia in that homosexual does refer to sexuality between two people of the same sex, but that does not in any way, shape or form, support the view that such acts are committed by men with adult homosexual oreintaions, or Gay men.

I have only heard one other person try to make arguments like you. You are speaking in terms that only Bill Clinton would understand. i.e. "That depends on what the meaning of is is." Their is a clear distinction between the terms "homosexual" and "pedophilia." However, the terms aren't mutually exclusive. If an adult male adult has sex with a male child, then the adult male is a homosexual pedophile.

I'm all for homosexuals doing there own thing, but let's face it. Homosexuality is a sexual perversion. The definition of "perverision" is, and abnormal sexual act. Why do I say that homosexuality is abnormal? It is simple. It is not natural. The purpose of sex is to reproduce. I learned in 8th grade sex ed that butt sex can't produce children. Therefore homosexuality is abnormal. If this too complicated for you grasp, then let me know and I'll draw you a diagram of how the life cycle works.

 

[rtwngAvngr]

The psychologicy associated with adult homosexuality and any form of pedophilllia are so distinct as to make them nearly antitheses of one another. A pedophile who molests a little boy has as much in common with an adult oriented homosexual as a pedophile who molests little girls has in common with an adult oriented heterosexual. The fact that people on your side refuse to see the clear distinctions between those with attractions to adults and those with attractions to children has me completely and utterly flummoxed. Pedophillia is a completely separate psychosexual manifestation from either adult heterosexuality, homosexuality or bisexuality and can't be classified as any of them.

Got a link?

 

[definition]

I have only heard one other person try to make arguments like you. You are speaking in terms that only Bill Clinton would understand. i.e. "That depends on what the meaning of is is." Their is a clear distinction between the terms "homosexual" and "pedophilia." However, the terms aren't mutually exclusive. If an adult male adult has sex with a male child, then the adult male is a homosexual pedophile.

Not true. No more than if an adult experiments with homosexuality is he necessarily a homosexual, he could be bisexual or just someone who experimented. Furthermore, an adult homosexual male in order to be classified as one must have sexual attractions to adult homosexual males. Most fixated pedophiles have no specific gender preference so they can't be rated as homosexual even if the term was applied in the manner you attempt to apply it. Sexual Psychologists who have studied the phenomona of both pedophillia and homosexuality do not agree with your classifications. My interpretation is the STANDARD accepted understanding of sexuality in regards to pedophillia and adult sexual orientations. The fixated pedophile is oriented towards prepubertal children regardless of gennder. This is not to say that there are NO homosexuals who have adult sexual orientations who also have child orientations, but the statistics show that THAT would be exceptionally rare.

Homosexuality is a sexual perversion. The definition of "perverision" is, and abnormal sexual act. Why do I say that homosexuality is abnormal? It is simple. It is not natural. The purpose of sex is to reproduce. I learned in 8th grade sex ed that butt sex can't produce children. Therefore homosexuality is abnormal. If this too complicated for you grasp, then let me know and I'll draw you a diagram of how the life cycle works.

Reproduction is NOT the only point of human sexuality. If that were the case then human females would be like most animal females and ONLY be able to enjoy sex while in "heat." But this is clearly not the case. Sex is also for pleasure and bonding experiences between a couple. Furthermore, if all sex that can't lead to reproduction is unnatural then sex between an infertile heterosexual couple would be every bit as unnatural as sex between a homosexual couple.

Furthermore, science is learning more and more that there is a biological connection with homosexuality. It is, therefore, natural.

 

[definition]

Got a link?

I've already provided a link that explains these distinctions that are accepted status quo fact.

 

[rtwngAvngr]

I've already provided a link that explains these distinctions that are accepted status quo fact.

I think it's status quo idiotic. Maybe it's not really pedophilia either. Everybody wins!

 

[rtwngAvngr]

http://216.220.97.17/


Welcome to the Home Page of the North American Man/Boy Love Association

Why is it Man/boy love why isn't it person/child love?

 

[definition]

I think it's status quo idiotic. Maybe it's not really pedophilia either. Everybody wins!

There are acts of pedophillia that are not committed by pedophiles. There are acts of heterosexuality that are not committed by either heterosexuals or bisexuals. There are acts of homosexuality that aren't committed by homosexuals or bisexuals. You are not automatically classified with a given sexual orientation merely because you engaged in a certain behavior.