CurveLight
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- Oct 16, 2009
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- #81
That's theologically contradictory because if the Old law did not get abolished until the Resurrection then Jesus taught a violation of the Old law. Why would he give a false teaching? He also didn't give a time reference or limitation
Jesus never said to "accept him as Savior." That is no where in the New Testament. We also know he was not omniscient by his own proclamation so he said to pray to God because there is only one God.
John 14:6
''Jesus answered, "I am the way and the truth and the life. No one comes to the Father except through me.''
The only way to the Father is through relationship with the Son. Only in relationship with Jesus can we begin to understand unconditional forgiveness. Ever time we forgive others we gain a deeper understanding of the sacrifice Jesus made as payment for our sins.
Jesus was teaching the disciples how to pray in relationship with God as the Father. When we accept Jesus and pray to the Father He no longer sees our sins and brokenness, but sees us in the same light as Jesus.
Between you and Jesus, which one is more qualified to say how we should pray? It is not mysterious what he said in the Lord's Prayer yet you are trying to change it. He never said to pray to him, but to God.
You're also changing what he said in Jn 14:6. He didn't say to accept him as Saviour. That is a lazy theology designed to avoid doing the work.