Why did Israel ...

[anotherlife]

Why did Israel re occupy the Pelestinial territories after its withdrawal in 1990(?)?

 

[Sixties Fan]

Why did Israel re occupy the Pelestinial territories after its withdrawal in 1990(?)?

Of course you are going to explain which "Palestinian territories" you are talking about.

 

[fncceo]

Bigger question ... why do you give a fetid dingo's kidney?

 

[anotherlife]

Why did Israel re occupy the Pelestinial territories after its withdrawal in 1990(?)?

Of course you are going to explain which "Palestinian territories" you are talking about.

British Palestine was divided into Israel and Palestinian Territories in 1947. As per international law, these are still the official borders of Israel, even though Israel annexed more land.

 

[anotherlife]

Bigger question ... why do you give a fetid dingo's kidney?

Because the Israel Palestine model can be used for any other region too where the entente drew country borders for the purpose of starting never ending conflicts.

 

[fncceo]

Because the Israel Palestine model can be used for any other region too where the entente drew country borders for the purpose of starting never ending conflicts.

So ... where are your never ending threads on the ongoing conflict between India and Pakistan? Or Uganda and the Congo?

You can't start a thread about something if there are no Jews to blame?

 

[Sixties Fan]

Why did Israel re occupy the Pelestinial territories after its withdrawal in 1990(?)?

Of course you are going to explain which "Palestinian territories" you are talking about.

British Palestine was divided into Israel and Palestinian Territories in 1947. As per international law, these are still the official borders of Israel, even though Israel annexed more land.

You get an F in history.

The British proposed a Partition in 1937. The Arabs refused it.
The UN, again, proposed a Partition in 1947 before the British Mandate ended. The Arabs, again, refused it and declared war on Israel after it declared Independence.

The Arabs lost some land. The Jews lost some land in the 1948 war. No borders were drawn

In 1967, the Arabs for the third time went to war against Israel.
This time Egypt lost Gaza which it took in 1948.
Jordan lost Judea, Samaria and the Jewish Quarter of Jerusalem it took in 1948 wanted to annex that to Jordan.

So, since the Arab League and the Arabs living in what was left of the Mandate, some 22 % refused to accept the partition, and only Israel accepted it and declared Independence, Israel is the only one which ended up being recognized by the UN.

There are Armistice lines from the war of 1948, or the war of 1967, but "Official borders" they do not exist.

Judea and Samaria were to be part of Israel, until the Hashemite Jordanians invaded and took the land and tried to annex it for themselves.

That is the land you are speaking of, right?

Are you referring to the Oslo Accords of the 1990s, of which you do not seem to have any knowledge about, when you refer to Israel occupying"Palestinian territories" when there has never been such a thing in the history of the region?

 

[fncceo]

As per international law, these are still the official borders of Israel,

Got a problem with International Law ... call an international cop.

 

[Shusha]

British Palestine was divided into Israel and Palestinian Territories in 1947. As per international law, these are still the official borders of Israel, even though Israel annexed more land.

Your understanding of international law is incorrect. International boundaries (borders) are created by treaty between entities which have the capacity to enter into agreements with other entities. Typically this means States (countries). IOW, international boundaries are an agreement between one State and another State that MY territory ends here and YOUR territory begins here.

An outside entity (Britain, the UN, etc) has no ability, in international law, to assign the boundaries of other entities. With respect to this, international law is based ENTIRELY on consent and agreement.

Israel has, by consent and agreement, aka treaty, aka international law, a boundary on the east with the State of Jordan. On the south with the State of Egypt. On the north with the States of Lebanon and Syria (with some disputes) based on international treaties. On the west is the sea.

There has NEVER been a treaty which divides the territory of Israel/Palestine into two legal, separate, territorial units. Every treaty concerning that conflict has demanded, fully in concert with accepted international law, a negotiated treaty between the parties involved. Which has not yet occurred.

 

[P F Tinmore]

British Palestine was divided into Israel and Palestinian Territories in 1947.

Not true.

 

[P F Tinmore]

British Palestine was divided into Israel and Palestinian Territories in 1947. As per international law, these are still the official borders of Israel, even though Israel annexed more land.

Your understanding of international law is incorrect. International boundaries (borders) are created by treaty between entities which have the capacity to enter into agreements with other entities. Typically this means States (countries). IOW, international boundaries are an agreement between one State and another State that MY territory ends here and YOUR territory begins here.

An outside entity (Britain, the UN, etc) has no ability, in international law, to assign the boundaries of other entities. With respect to this, international law is based ENTIRELY on consent and agreement.

Israel has, by consent and agreement, aka treaty, aka international law, a boundary on the east with the State of Jordan. On the south with the State of Egypt. On the north with the States of Lebanon and Syria (with some disputes) based on international treaties. On the west is the sea.

There has NEVER been a treaty which divides the territory of Israel/Palestine into two legal, separate, territorial units. Every treaty concerning that conflict has demanded, fully in concert with accepted international law, a negotiated treaty between the parties involved. Which has not yet occurred.

Israel has, by consent and agreement, aka treaty, aka international law, a boundary on the east with the State of Jordan. On the south with the State of Egypt. On the north with the States of Lebanon and Syria (with some disputes) based on international treaties. On the west is the sea.

This contradicts your preceding statements.

 

[Shusha]

British Palestine was divided into Israel and Palestinian Territories in 1947. As per international law, these are still the official borders of Israel, even though Israel annexed more land.

Your understanding of international law is incorrect. International boundaries (borders) are created by treaty between entities which have the capacity to enter into agreements with other entities. Typically this means States (countries). IOW, international boundaries are an agreement between one State and another State that MY territory ends here and YOUR territory begins here.

An outside entity (Britain, the UN, etc) has no ability, in international law, to assign the boundaries of other entities. With respect to this, international law is based ENTIRELY on consent and agreement.

Israel has, by consent and agreement, aka treaty, aka international law, a boundary on the east with the State of Jordan. On the south with the State of Egypt. On the north with the States of Lebanon and Syria (with some disputes) based on international treaties. On the west is the sea.

There has NEVER been a treaty which divides the territory of Israel/Palestine into two legal, separate, territorial units. Every treaty concerning that conflict has demanded, fully in concert with accepted international law, a negotiated treaty between the parties involved. Which has not yet occurred.

Israel has, by consent and agreement, aka treaty, aka international law, a boundary on the east with the State of Jordan. On the south with the State of Egypt. On the north with the States of Lebanon and Syria (with some disputes) based on international treaties. On the west is the sea.

This contradicts your preceding statements.

I don't think so. Explain.

 

[P F Tinmore]

British Palestine was divided into Israel and Palestinian Territories in 1947. As per international law, these are still the official borders of Israel, even though Israel annexed more land.

Your understanding of international law is incorrect. International boundaries (borders) are created by treaty between entities which have the capacity to enter into agreements with other entities. Typically this means States (countries). IOW, international boundaries are an agreement between one State and another State that MY territory ends here and YOUR territory begins here.

An outside entity (Britain, the UN, etc) has no ability, in international law, to assign the boundaries of other entities. With respect to this, international law is based ENTIRELY on consent and agreement.

Israel has, by consent and agreement, aka treaty, aka international law, a boundary on the east with the State of Jordan. On the south with the State of Egypt. On the north with the States of Lebanon and Syria (with some disputes) based on international treaties. On the west is the sea.

There has NEVER been a treaty which divides the territory of Israel/Palestine into two legal, separate, territorial units. Every treaty concerning that conflict has demanded, fully in concert with accepted international law, a negotiated treaty between the parties involved. Which has not yet occurred.

Israel has, by consent and agreement, aka treaty, aka international law, a boundary on the east with the State of Jordan. On the south with the State of Egypt. On the north with the States of Lebanon and Syria (with some disputes) based on international treaties. On the west is the sea.

This contradicts your preceding statements.

I don't think so. Explain.

An outside entity (Britain, the UN, etc) has no ability, in international law, to assign the boundaries of other entities. With respect to this, international law is based ENTIRELY on consent and agreement.​

Why was Israel, with Egypt and Jordan, assigning a border to Israel, that belongs to Palestine?

 

[Sixties Fan]

British Palestine was divided into Israel and Palestinian Territories in 1947. As per international law, these are still the official borders of Israel, even though Israel annexed more land.

Your understanding of international law is incorrect. International boundaries (borders) are created by treaty between entities which have the capacity to enter into agreements with other entities. Typically this means States (countries). IOW, international boundaries are an agreement between one State and another State that MY territory ends here and YOUR territory begins here.

An outside entity (Britain, the UN, etc) has no ability, in international law, to assign the boundaries of other entities. With respect to this, international law is based ENTIRELY on consent and agreement.

Israel has, by consent and agreement, aka treaty, aka international law, a boundary on the east with the State of Jordan. On the south with the State of Egypt. On the north with the States of Lebanon and Syria (with some disputes) based on international treaties. On the west is the sea.

There has NEVER been a treaty which divides the territory of Israel/Palestine into two legal, separate, territorial units. Every treaty concerning that conflict has demanded, fully in concert with accepted international law, a negotiated treaty between the parties involved. Which has not yet occurred.

Israel has, by consent and agreement, aka treaty, aka international law, a boundary on the east with the State of Jordan. On the south with the State of Egypt. On the north with the States of Lebanon and Syria (with some disputes) based on international treaties. On the west is the sea.

This contradicts your preceding statements.

I don't think so. Explain.

An outside entity (Britain, the UN, etc) has no ability, in international law, to assign the boundaries of other entities. With respect to this, international law is based ENTIRELY on consent and agreement.​

Why was Israel, with Egypt and Jordan, assigning a border to Israel, that belongs to Palestine?

It belongs to "Palestine" in your mind only.

Israel, Egypt and Jordan understand what they signed.
You do not.

 

[Shusha]

An outside entity (Britain, the UN, etc) has no ability, in international law, to assign the boundaries of other entities. With respect to this, international law is based ENTIRELY on consent and agreement.​

Why was Israel, with Egypt and Jordan, assigning a border to Israel, that belongs to Palestine?

Israel is Palestine. The territory formerly known as the Mandate for Palestine is now called Israel. Israel didn't assign a border. Israel, as the national entity (State) with the capacity to enter into negotiations with other States negotiated a treaty with its peers.

 

[Shusha]

You keep trying to divorce "Palestine" and Israel as though they are two different entities. They are not.

 

[Bleipriester]

Why did Israel re occupy the Pelestinial territories after its withdrawal in 1990(?)?

Your question has been answered.

 

[P F Tinmore]

British Palestine was divided into Israel and Palestinian Territories in 1947. As per international law, these are still the official borders of Israel, even though Israel annexed more land.

Your understanding of international law is incorrect. International boundaries (borders) are created by treaty between entities which have the capacity to enter into agreements with other entities. Typically this means States (countries). IOW, international boundaries are an agreement between one State and another State that MY territory ends here and YOUR territory begins here.

An outside entity (Britain, the UN, etc) has no ability, in international law, to assign the boundaries of other entities. With respect to this, international law is based ENTIRELY on consent and agreement.

Israel has, by consent and agreement, aka treaty, aka international law, a boundary on the east with the State of Jordan. On the south with the State of Egypt. On the north with the States of Lebanon and Syria (with some disputes) based on international treaties. On the west is the sea.

There has NEVER been a treaty which divides the territory of Israel/Palestine into two legal, separate, territorial units. Every treaty concerning that conflict has demanded, fully in concert with accepted international law, a negotiated treaty between the parties involved. Which has not yet occurred.

Israel has, by consent and agreement, aka treaty, aka international law, a boundary on the east with the State of Jordan. On the south with the State of Egypt. On the north with the States of Lebanon and Syria (with some disputes) based on international treaties. On the west is the sea.

This contradicts your preceding statements.

I don't think so. Explain.

An outside entity (Britain, the UN, etc) has no ability, in international law, to assign the boundaries of other entities. With respect to this, international law is based ENTIRELY on consent and agreement.​

Why was Israel, with Egypt and Jordan, assigning a border to Israel, that belongs to Palestine?

It belongs to "Palestine" in your mind only.

Israel, Egypt and Jordan understand what they signed.
You do not.

What treaty made those Israel's borders?

Link?

 

[Shusha]

Sigh. You keep going back to the same false position -- that Israel and Palestine are two different entities and that Israel is somehow "fake".

You know which treaties we are discussing. We have brought it up a hundred times. There is no dispute about which treaties we are using.

 

[P F Tinmore]

Sigh. You keep going back to the same false position -- that Israel and Palestine are two different entities and that Israel is somehow "fake".

You know which treaties we are discussing. We have brought it up a hundred times. There is no dispute about which treaties we are using.

You are ducking the question.