Of course there are standards in medicine.
But you ignore my factual scenario.
How can a doctor claim there was NO need for the abortion when HE NEVER SAW THE PATIENT?
You have not stated one fact to rebut anything or any factual scenario I presented.
If you do not know that ALL medical malpractice cases have TOTALLY opposite diagnosis of standard of care then you know nothing about medical legal issues.
If you deny that in worker's compensation cases one doctor gets up and testifies "the claimant is fine and can go back to work" and then the next doctor comes in and states "the claimant is 80% disabled and can not work" that proves without any doubt you have never, ever done any trial work in the civil courts.
That sir goes on in EVERY worker's compensation case across the nation daily.
All the while you naively claim that doctors do not doctor their records.
Try again and show me something, anything that shows that doctors do not offer opinions to fit their clients' needs.
Sort of like attorneys but without the doctor's various opionions to fit their client's needs the attorneys have NO case.
I have been doing this 30 years. 5000 cases with over 1000 jury trials.
Stroke your epeen a little more. Something useful might come out.
Of course I know that doctors conflict. I'm the one who explained that in MY POST.
YOU SEEM TO IGNORE the fact that making it illegal means that 99% of doctors will stop doing it. That's pretty effective enforcement right there. And in the cases where you have a doctor claiming that a mother's life is in danger, it's going to be pretty hard medically to cheat the system. You keep making these sweeping comments about medical litigation in general, but fail to speak about SPECIFIC circumstances.
I'm pretty glad that you were never a PI for one of my cases. You can't seem to hold a train of thought very well.
I was questioning whether you were a lawyer or not but your dancing around like a monkey on fire, twisting and distorting the truth have convinced me you are.
I gave you SPECIFICS such as medical malpractice cases where YOU HAVE TO HAVE A DOCTOR'S AFFIDAVIT that there was negligence to even file your case.
Now tell me counselor, are you denying that in a mdeical malpractice case, IN ALL medical malpractice cases you have a doctor stating that the standard of care was not up to speed and that is what caused the malpractice and that the insurance carrier of the doctor will have their doctor come in and state THE EXACT OPPOSITE?
If they didn't then how do THEY DEFEND THE DAMN CASE?
Same with worker's compensation cases. I gave SPECIFICS on that also.
And from the companion case YOU BROUGHT UP Doe which proves my point 100%:
That case broadly defined the health exemption so that any level of distress or discomfort would qualify and gave the abortionist the final say over what qualified:
"The medical judgement may be exercised in the light of all factors-physical, emotional, psychological, familial and the woman's age, relevant to the well being of the patient. All these factors may relate to "health".
Because the application of the health exemption was left to the abortionist, as I have been schooling you on here, any legislation directly prohibitng any abortion is practically UNENFORCEABLE.
And it was prior history of doctors ALWAYS DOING THIS, that prompted the ruling in the first place.
Fairly simple for anyone that is interested IN FACT.