P F Tinmore
Diamond Member
- Dec 6, 2009
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Who said it was just the Gaza strip? The Palestinians declared independence in 1948 inside their defined territory. There was no Gaza Strip until 1949.But they did. They declared independence in 1948.Because the arabs supposedly consider that land palestine. Therefore under Jordanian rule they should also be demanding a free palestine.1) There was no call among the arabs for a "palestine" when Jordan controlled the territoryAnd that country is Palestine.There should be no doubt in your mind that Trans-Jordania was accounted for as a separate territory with the mandate.
Obviously this has nothing to do with 1967 borders.
1) There was no call among the arabs for a "palestine" when Jordan controlled the territory
2) The arab countries wanted to kill all the Jews and destroy Israel before 1967.
Why would there be, or why should there be?
But alas they didn't.
This shows that this was never about a land. It's about the arab government's refusal to recognize Israel in any form.
Nope as it was not all of Palestine just the gaza strip and it was done by Egyptians from Cairo and not palestinians
And Israel was declared by the foreign Jewish Agency that was created in Zurich by the foreign World Zionist Organization. And Israel had no defined territory.