WelfareQueen
Diamond Member
The very first words of the constitution after the preamble are
All legislative powers herein granted shall be vested in a congress of the united states
Writing laws and repealing laws are legislative powers and yet federal judges are constantly declaring laws unconstitutional and repealing them and sometimes even writing a new law in its place!
Article 3 Section 1&2:
"Section 1.
The judicial power of the United States, shall be vested in one Supreme Court, and in such inferior courts as the Congress may from time to time ordain and establish. The judges, both of the supreme and inferior courts, shall hold their offices during good behaviour, and shall, at stated times, receive for their services, a compensation, which shall not be diminished during their continuance in office.
Section 2.
The judicial power shall extend to all cases, in law and equity, arising under this Constitution, the laws of the United States, and treaties made, or which shall be made, under their authority;
Article III | LII / Legal Information Institute
^that looks like an answer, but it isn't.
We all know already that the Constitution explicitly grants the power it provides to the judicial branch.
But the question was essentially what provision in the Constitution explicitly grants the judicial branch the power to vacate any laws.
The honest answer to that question is that there is NO explicit grant of ANY such authority.
To the extent it exists at all, it exists as an inherent or implied power.
The Constitution DOES provide that laws passed in compliance with the Constitution are the supreme laws of the land. That is, Constitutionally valid Federal laws trump any State laws.-- United States Constitution, Article VI, Clause 2This Constitution, and the Laws of the United States which shall be made in pursuance thereof; and all treaties made, or which shall be made, under the authority of the United States, shall be the supreme law of the land; and the judges in every state shall be bound thereby, anything in the constitution or laws of any state to the contrary notwithstanding.
The implication lingers that a law passed in violation of the Constitution is not only not superior to any State law on the topic, it is in fact no "law" at all.
Who would say so? Naturally, it would be the judicial branch.
Sir, you are exactly correct. It is amazing how few people know this.